UTTAR PRADESH UP PCS UPPSC Prelims Exam 2009 General Studies Solved paper

UTTAR PRADESH UP PCS UPPSC Prelims Exam 2009 General Studies Solved paper

UPPCS  is one of the most important exams for getting highest level jobs in UP

General Studies exam was held in December 2009

We are providing paper with answers

General Studies Consists of

Current affairs

history

geography

Science Questions

As these Questions appear in all exams so its helpful for every exam like UPSC prelims ,all state public service Exams etc

1. Consider the following statements about the Preamble of the Constitution and state which of them are correct with the help of given codes

1. The objective resolution pro posed by Pt. Nehru ultimately became the Preamble.

2. It is not justiciable in nature.

3. It cannot be amended.

4. It cannot override the specific provisions of the Constitution.

Codes:

(A) Only land 2

(B) Only l, 2and 4

(C) Only 1,2 and 3

(D) Only2 ,3 and 4

Ans:B

2. The Union Parliament can also legislate on a subject of State List

1. To give effect to international agreement.

2. With the consent of the State concerned.

3. During President’s rule in the State.

4. In the national interest, when Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to this effect by a 2/3 rd majority.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

Codes:

(A) 1,2 and 3

(B) 2, 3and 4

(C) 1,2 and 4

(D) All the four

Ans:D

3. SEZ Act was passed by the Parliament in the year?

(A)       2004

(B)       2005

(C)       2006

(D) None of the above

Ans:B

4. The Governor of a State can act independent of the advice of the Council of Ministers in?

1. Asking the Government to prove its majority in the Assembly.

2. Dismissing a Chief Minister.

3. Reserving a bill for the consideration of the President of India.

4. Returning the bill passed by the legislature for reconsideration.

5. Seeking the opinion of the High Court.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below

Codes:

(A) 1,2,3 and 4

(B) 2,3,4 and 5

(C) 1,2,4 and 5

(D) All the Five

Ans:A

5. Mayor of a city in Uttar Pradesh -

1. Is first citizen of the city.

2. Is ex-officio member of the Municipal Corporation.

3. Is ex-officio Chairman of the Executive Committee.

4. Exercises full control over the executive machinery.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes:

(A) 1 and 2

(B) 1 ,2 and 3

(C) 2,3 and 4

(D) All the four

Ans:D

6. Planning was considered a pre requisite—

1. For balanced socio-economic development.

2. For extending the benefits of development in an even manner.

3. For focusing on removal of regional disparities.

4. For maximizing the utilization of available resources.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes:

(A) l and 2

(B) 1,2 and 3

(C) 2, 3and 4

(D) All the four

Ans:D

7. India in recent past has succeeded in attracting large foreign investments in?

1. Life Insurance Business

2. Banking Sector

3. Automobiles Sector

4. Film-making

5. Medical Tourism

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes:

(A) 1, 2 and 3

(B) 1,3 and 4

(C) 2, 3 and 4

(D) 2,3,4 and 5

Ans:A

8. Which of the following statements about Sugar industry are correct?

1. In the world, India’s share in sugar production is over 15 per cent.

2. Sugar industry is the second largest agro-based industry in India.

3. India is the largest consumer of sugar.

4. India is the largest producer of sugar.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes:

(A)       l and 2

(B) 3 and 4

(C) 2 and 3

(D) 1 and 4

Ans:C

9. Which one of the following is nut a measure of reducing inequalities?

(A) Minimum-Needs Programme

(B) Liberalization of economy

(C) Taxation

(D) Land Reforms

Ans:B

10. The largest item of public expenditure in the Union Budget in recent years has been—

(A) Defence expenditure

(B) Interest payments

(C) Major subsidies

(D) Capital expenditure

Ans:B

11. Consider following statements and Select the correct answer from the codes given below

1. The term ‘Union of States’ has been used in the Constitution because Indian States have no right to recede.

2. The S. K. Dhar Commission preferred reorganization of States on administrative convenience rather than on linguistic basis.

3. The Congress Committee under Pt. Nehru, Sardar Patel and Pattabhi Sita ramayya did not favour linguistic basis for re-organisation of States.

(A) Only 1

(B) Only 1 and 2

(C) Only l and 3

(D) All the three

Ans:D

12. Upnishads were translated into Persian during the reign of?

(A) Aurangzeb

(B) Shahjahan

(C) Jahangir

(D) Akbar

Ans:B

13. Given below are four events connected with India’s struggle for independence. Select their correct chronological order by using the codes given below the events—

1. Second Round Table Conference.

2. Karachi Session of Indian National Congress.

3. Execution of Bhagat Singh

4. Gandhi-Irwin Pact

Codes:

(A)1,2,3,4

(B) 2,1,3,4

(C)4,3,2,1

(D) 2,4,3,1

Ans:C

14. Who of the following had called Subhash Chandra Bose as ‘Desh Nayak’?

(A) Mahatma Gandhi

(B) Ram Manohar Lohia

(C) Rabindranath Tagore

(D) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

Ans:C

15. Who of the following had presided over the annual session of Indian National Congress held at Lucknow in 1916?

(A) Annie Besant

(B) Lala Lajpat Rai

(C) Motilal Nehru

(D) A. C. Majumdar

Ans:D

16. Who of the following presided over the session of Indian National Congress when resolution of ‘Poorna Swaraj’ was passed?

(A) Dadabhai Naoroji

(B) Jawaharlal Nehru

(C) Lala Lajpat Rai

(D) Surendranath Banerjee

Ans:B

17. Aruna Asaf Ali was connected with which one of the following movements as a woman organiser of underground activity?

(A) Civil Disobedience Movement

(B)Non Cooperation Movement

(C) Quit India Movement

(D) Swadeshi Movement

Ans:C

18. The cardinal features of political system in India are—

1. It is a democratic republic.

2. It has a Parliamentary form of Government.

3. The supreme power vests in the people of India.

4. It provides for a unified authority.

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes:

(A) l and 2

(B) 1,2 and 3

(C) 2,3 and 4

(D) All the four statements are Correct

Ans:D

19. Who among the following leaders was the supporter of ‘Swadeshi’?

(A)Arbindo Ghosh

(B)Pheroz Shah Mehta

(C)Dadabhai Naoroji

(D) Subhash chandra Bose

Ans:A

20. Given below are two statements

Assertion (A) : Political parties are the life blood of democracy.

Reason (R) : People generally curse political parties for poor governance.

In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?

(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)

(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false

(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true

Ans:B

21. Which one of the following pairs about the subject and the respective list under the Constitution of India is not correctly matched?

Subject             List

(A)Forests—Concurrent List

(B) Stock Exchange—Concurrent List

(C) Post Office Saving Bank—Union List

(D) Public Health—State List

Ans:B

22. ‘Right to Equality’ finds a place in the Constitution under—

1.Article 13

2. Article 14

3.Article 15

4. Article 16

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes:

(A)1 and 2

(B) 1,2 and 3

(C) 2,3 and 4

(D) In All the four

Ans:C

23. Centre-State relations in India are dependent upon—

1. Constitutional provisions

2. Conventions and practices

3. Judicial interpretations

4. Mechanisms for dialogue

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes:

(A)       l and 2

(B)       1,2and3

(C)       2,3and 4

(D)       All the four

Ans:D

24. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution adopted on 26th

November, 1949 did not include the terms—

1. Socialist

2. Secular

3. Integrity

4. Republic

Select the correct answer from the codes given below—

Codes:

(A) 1,2 and 3

(B) 2, 3and 4

(C) 1, 2 and 4

(D) 3 and 4

Ans:A

25. Poverty level in India is established on the basis of—
(A) Pet capita income in different States
(B) House-hold average income
(C) House-hold consumer expenditure
(D) Slum population in the country

Ans:C

26. In which one of the following places, the cave temples built by the Rashtrakutas in the Ellora mountains are located?
(A) Aurangabad (Maharashtra)
(B) Nasilc (Maharashtra)
(C) Gwalior (Madhya Pradesh)
(D) Colconda (Andhra Pradesh)

Ans:A

27. “Let no man ask a man’s sect or caste.” This statement has been given by—
(A)Kabir
(B) Ramananda
(C) Ramanuja
(D) Chaitanya

Ans:A

28. ‘Tamasha’ is the famous folk form of musical theatre and belongs to—
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Punjab
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Bihar

Ans:C
29. Musical instrument ‘Tabla’ was introduced by—
(A) Adil Shah
(B) Amir Khusrau
(C) Tansen
(D) Baiju Bawara

Ans:B
30. Non-performing assets in commercial banks means—
(A) Bank deposits which are not invested
(B) Capital assets not in use
(C) Loans in which interest or principal amount is not recovered
(D) Low-interest rate loans

Ans:C
31. Base year for estimation of Gross Domestic Product at constant prices in India, at present, is—
(A) 1999-2000
(B) 2000-2001
(C) 2002-2003
(D) 2006-2007

Ans:A

32. The total number of Puranas are
(A) 12
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 20
Ans:C

33. Consider following statements about Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana and state which one of them is incorrect?
(A) It was launched during 2007-08
(B) It envisages an outlay of Rs. 2,500 crores for the Eleventh Five Year Plan
(C) Additional Central assistance under the scheme would be available as 80% grant to the States
(D) Activities under the Yojna include integrated development of Food crops, Agriculture mechanisation, development of Rainfed farming etc.

Ans:C
34. Consider following statements—
1. A watershed development fund has been established with a total corpus of Rs. 200 crores.
2. The objective is to undertake integrated watershed development in selected 100 districts.
3. Under the scheme 2/3 rd of amount is given for grant based projects in the State.
With the help of given codes, find which of the above statement(s) is/ are correct.
Codes:
(A)Only l
(B) l and 2only
(C) 1,2 and 3
(D) 2 and 3only

Ans:C

35. What was the name of Ujjain in ancient times?
(A) Takshila
(B) Awantika
(C) Indraprashtha
(D) None of the above

Ans:B
36. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
(A) Kalinga Award—Popularization of Science
(B) David Cohen Award— Literature
(C) Borlaug Award —Agriculture
(D.) Pulitzer Prize—Progress in religion

Ans:D
37. Which one of the following parts of Mentha possesses maximum oil percentage?
(A)Root
(B) Stem
(C)Leaf
(D) Flower

Ans:C
38. Balance of Payment includes—
(A) Visible Trade
(B) Invisible Trade
(C) Debts
(D) All the above
Ans:D

39. Now, packaging has assumed importance because—
(A) It provides protection to products
(B) It makes products attractive
(C) It increases credibility of the product
(D) It provides all the above
Ans:D
40. The Bank rate is the rate at which—
(A) A bank lends to the public
(B) The RBI lends to the public
(C) The RBI gives credit to the commercial banks
(D) The Government of India lends to other countries
Ans:C
41. ‘Nitrogen use efficiency’ in crop production may be enhanced by ?
(A) Split application of fertilizer
(B) Use of nitrogen inhibitors
(C) Use of slow release fertilizers
(D) All the above
Ans:D
42. Research and development of farm tools and machinery are being carried out by Central Institute of Agriculture Engineering which is located at—
(A) Pant Nagar
(B) Bhopal
(C) New Delhi
(D) Ranchi
Ans:B

43.The National Agriculture innovation Project is being implemented by ICAR with credit assistance from World Bank. It has got how many components?
(A) Only one component
(B) Two components
(C) Three components
(D) Four components
Ans:D

44. Rajiv Gandhi Environment Award is given four outstanding contribution to?
(A) Afforestation and conservation of waste land
(B) Neat technology and development
(C) Wildlife conservation
(D) Writing of Hindi books on Environment

Ans:B

45. Given below are two statements
Assertiqn (A) Natural vegetation is the true index of climate.
Reason (R) Water-loving plants are found in moist climate.
In the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans:A

46. In October 2009, a decision has been taken to shift the wholesale Price Index base year from 1993-94 to?
(A) 2001-2002
(B) 2002-2003
(C) 2003-2004
(D) 2004-2005
Ans:D

47. Which of the following conditions indicate the impact of global warming?
1.Melting of glaciers.
2.Rise in sea level.
3. Changes in weather condi lions
4. Rise in global temperature.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below—
Codes:
(A) l and 2
(B)1,2 and 3
(C)2,3 and 4
(D)All the four
Ans:D

48. Tree cover is maximum in?
(A) East Deccan
(B) Northern Plains
(C) West Coast
(D) East Coast
Ans:C

49. As per 2001 Census, arrange the following States/ Union Territories in descending order of population
(A) Chandigarh - Puducherry - Sikkim - Mizoram
(B) Chandigarh - Puducherry - Mizoram - Sikkim
(C) Puducherry - Chandigarh - Mizoram - Sikkiin
(D) Puducherry - Chandigarh - Sikkim- Mizoram
Ans:C

50. Arrange the following States in the descending order of literacy as per Census Report of 2001 and select the correct answer from the codes given at the end—
1. Kerala
2. Manipur
3. Tamil Nadu
4. Himachal Pradesh
Codes:
(A)1,4,3,2
(B)4,1,3,2
(C)2,4,1,3
(D) 1,2,4,3
Ans:A

51. Which of the following statements about Radioactive pollution are correct?
1. It causes hereditary change in the animals.
2. It causes disbalance among different minerals in the soil.
3. It hinders blood circulation.
4. It causes carcinogenesis.
Select the correct answer from
the codes given below—
Codes:
(A)l and 2
(B) l and 4
(C) 1,3 and 4
(D)) 2,3 and 4
Ans:C

52. Which one of the following years is known as the ‘Year of the Great Divide’ with regard to population, after which there has been a continuous and rapid growth in India’s population?
(A) 1911
(B) 1921
(C) 1941
(D) 1951
Ans:B

53. Among the following 4 cities (Principal Corporation) which one had the least population as per 2001 census?
(A) Kanpur
(B) Lucknow
(C) Agra
(D) Varanasi

Ans:D

54. Which of the following conditions determine an area as urban as given in the Census Report of 2001?
1. Its minimum population will have to be 5,000.
2. The minimum percentage of its working male population, engaged in non-agri cultural work, will have to be 75.
3. The density of its population will have to be at least 400 persons for sq. km.
4. It will have to have a minimum area of 10 sq. km.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below
(A)l and 2
(B) 1,2 and 3
(C) 2,3 and 4
(D) All the four Statements

Ans:B

55. The percentage of urban population in India according to Census 2001, is?
(A) 20.8
(B) 25.7
(C) 27.3
(D) 27.8
56. Which one of the following Union Territories in India has the sex ratio (number of females per1000 males) above 1000?
(A) Puducherry
(B) Delhi
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Lakshadweep
Ans:A

57. Given below are two statements—
Assertion (A) : The dividing line between village and town begins to be passed with the presence of traders and manufacturers.
Reason (R) : The traders and manufacturers wholly depend on village resources.
in the context of the above, which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of(A)
(B) Both (A)and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true
Ans:D

58. Who of the following received Lachchu Maharaj Award for
Kathak Dance at its ceremony in September, 2009?
(A) Madhuri Dixit
(B) Rekha
(C) Kunkum Dhar
(D) Asha Parekh

Ans:D
59. The first High/Supreme Court Judge, who voluntarily made public his assets, is?
(A) Justice D. V. Shyalendra Kumar
(B) Justice K. Chandru
(C) Justice K. Kannan
(D) Justice U. C. Srivastava

Ans: C

60. Which of the following items of works are included in Bharat Nirman ? Find your answer with the help of given codes.
1. Accelerated irrigation benefits programme.
2. Inter-linking of River projects.
3. Scheme for repair, renovation and restoration of water bodies.
4. Rehabilitation of displaced persons due to irrigation projects.
Codes:
(A) Only land 2
(B) 1,2 and 4 only
(C)1,2 and 3 only
(D) All the four
Ans:C

Check Part 2 of This Exam

India Forest Types and Crops for General knowledge Tests in recruitment exams

India Forest Types and Crops for General knowledge Tests in recruitment exams
India has six types of forests.

1. Evergreen or Tropical Forests - areas with 200cm to 300cm rainfall

2.Deciduous or Monsoon Forests - places with rainfall between 150 to 209 cm

3 Dry Forest - rainfall between 75 to 100cm

4. Hill Forests found in South India and Himalayas

5.Tidal Forests also known as Mangrove are found in Sundarbans (West bengal) and coastal areas of Mahanadi, Godavari

6.Grasslands on hills

Crop types on basis of seasons.

(a) Kharif

Kharif Crops are Rice Jowar, Bajra, Ragi, Maize, Cotton,Jute

Normal Sowing time -Jun/Jul

Normal Harvest time - Sep/Oct

(b) Rabi

Rabi Crops are: Wheat, Mustard, Gram,Barley, Peas, Rapeseed,

Normal Sowing time -Oct/Dec.

Normal Harvest time- Apr/May.

Mountain ranges of India GK For UPSC CDS IES Civil services RRB Bank PO and other job exams

Mountain ranges of India GK For UPSC CDS IES Civil services RRB Bank PO and other job exams
Mountain Ranges

7 mountain ranges

Total Length :  more than 2400 km

1. Himalayas,

2.  Patkai and other ranges in north east

3. Vindhyas

4. Satpura

5. Aravalli

6. Sahyadri,

7.  Eastern Ghats on the East Coast

Highest Mountain Peaks of India GK For CDS exam and other Competitions

Highest Mountain Peaks of India GK For CDS exam and other Competitions
Highest  Mountain Peaks

Name :Height above  Mean Sea Level in metres

(1)K2 @                      8,611

(2) Kanchenjunga         8,598


(3) Nanga Parbat          8,126

(4) Gasher Brum@       8,068

(5) Broad Peak@         8,047

(6) Disteghil Sar@        7,885

(7) Masher Brum E       7,821

(8) Nanda Devi            7,817

(9) Masher Brum W@7,806

(10) Rakaposhi@         7,788

(11)Kamet       7,756

(12) Saser Kangri         7,672

(13) Skyang Kangri@  7,544

(14) Sia Kangri@         7,422

(15) Chaukhamba (Badrinath ) 7,138

(16) Trisul West           7,138

(17) Nunkun     7,135

(18) Pauhunri    7,125

(19) Kangto     7,090

(20) Dunagiri  7066

peaks marked @ are in POK

GK Solved Questions on World geography

GK Solved Questions on World geography
MCQ objective test general awareness geography
1.Match the following :
A, Pampas 1. Argentina
B CGYUDOS 2- Australia
C. Prairies 3. South Africa
D. Veldt 4. North America
E. Downs 5. Brazil
A B C D E
(a) 1 2 3 4 5
(b) 1 5 4 3 2
(c) 5 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 3 5 4 1
ANSWER (B)

2. Match the following :
Cities Natural Regions
A. Darwin 1. China type
B. New Orleans 2. Equatorial type
C San Francisco 3. Mediterranean type
D Vancouver 4. Tropical Monsoon type
5. West European
A B C D
(a) 4 1 3 5
(b) 3 5 2 1
(c) 4 5 3 1
(d) 3 1 2 5
ANSWER (A)
3. Mid-latitude forests have :
I. deciduous forests
ll. coniferous forests
III. evergreen forests
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and II
(d) Only II
ANSWER (A)

4. In which region China type climate is found?
(a) South Japan
(b) South West Korea
(C) Natalin Africa
(d) All of the above
ANSWER (D)

5. Shallow-rooted trees are associated with:
(a) Savanna climate
(bl Temperate climate
(c) Tropical climate
(d) Equatorial climate
ANSWER (D)

6. Winter temperature ranging from 29°Cto 40°C, summer temperature about 1O°C,
Total annual precipitation about 25 cm and low humidity. These characterise . the ...,,.
climate :
(a) Taiga
(b) Tundra
(c) Mountain
(d) West European
ANSWER (B)

7. Which one of the following regions has Mediterranean type of climate?
(a) Cape Town region of South Africa
(b) Great Plains of North America
(C) North-EasternAusi1'alia
(d) Southern Algeria
ANSWER (A)

8.Match the following Cities
City Climatic Type
A. Auckland 1. Mediterranean
B. Lagos 2.Humid
Subtropical
C. San Francisco 3. Marine West
European
D. Shanghai 4. Equatorial
(a) A B C D
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c ) 2 4 1 3
(d) 3 1 4 2
ANSWER (B)

9. Match the following :
Timber Country
A. Cedar 1. Myanmar
B. Douglas Fir 2. Canada
C. Mahogany 3. Mexico
D. Teak 4. Honduras
ABCD
(a) 3 2 14
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 2 3 1 4
ANSWER (B)

10. Which one of the following activities occupies the largest area of the world '?
(a) Commercial plantation
(b) Pastoral herding
(c) Commercial grain farming
(d) Subsistance agriculture
ANSWER (B)

11. Which type of climate is known for the maximum diurnal range of temperature?
(a) Mediterranean
(b) Equatorial
(c) Hot desert
(d) Cold desert
ANSWER (C)

12. Which one of the following characteristics is not found in the convectional rainfall?
(a) Drizzling
(b) Lightning and thunder
(c) Torrential rain
(d) Afternoon rain
ANSWER (A)

13. Which of the following climatic type suffers change due to shifting of the World’s Pressure Belts?
(a) Equatorial type
(b) Tundra type
(c) Tropical desert type
(d) Monsoon
ANSWER (D)

14. The greatest average annual precipitation is in:
(a) Hawaii
(b) India
(c) Philippines
(d) West lndies
ANSWER (C)


15. The average annual temperature is 19°C. An average annual rainfall of about 120 cm is
distributed throughout the year. Late summer and autumn are the dreaded seasons of
hurricanes and typhoons. These are the climatic conditions of :
(a) China type
(b) Sudan type
(c) Tropical desert type
(d) Taiga Type
ANSWER (A)

16. A place having an average annual temperature of 27°C and an annual rainfall of
over 200 cm could be :
(a) Tehran
(b) Singapore
(c) Nagpur
(d) Moscow
ANSWER (B)

17. ln which of the following types of climate does the temperature never rise above 10°C
throughout the year ?
(a) Continental Climate ,
(b) Tundra Climate
(c) Mediterranean Climate
(d) Taiga Climate
ANSWER (B)

18. The region which does not receive most of its rainfall during winter, is :
(a) Central California
(b) Central North America
(c) South West Australia
(d) South West Africa
ANSWER (B)

19. The climate of a place is decided by :
(al proximity to the sea
(b) altitude
(c) latitude
(d) All of the above
ANSWER (D)


20. Which one of the following countries celebrates Christmas festival in summer
season?
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(C) Mexico
(d) Italy
ANSWER (A)

Indian History - General Knowledge Questions and Answers

Indian History - General Knowledge Questions and Answers
Free Solved Objective GK on Indain history
1. Match the following:
King Deed
A. Rudradaman Performance of Asvamedha
B. Gautamiputra Defeat of Sakas
C. Kharavela Repair of Sudarsana lake
D. Samudragupta Patronage of Jainism
Codes:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 3 2 4 1
(c) 1 2 3 4
(d) 2 3 1 4
Answer. (b)




2. The destruction of the Maurya Empire was followed by a series of invasions,
and the first to invade india were the:
(a) Bactrian-Greeks
(b) Parthians
(c) Kushanas
(d) Shakas
Answer. (a)

3. Kanishka was a great patron of art and literature which of the following personalities
adorned his court?
(a) Aswaghosa, Parsva, Vasumitra and Charaka
(b) Aswaghosa, Nagarjuna, Nagasena and Vasumitra
(c) Aswaghosa, Parsva, Hemachandra and Nagarjuna
(d) Aswaghosa, Vasumitra, Asanga and Hemachandra
Answer. (a)

4. Saka era started from:
(a) 78 B.C.
(b) 78 A.D.
(c) 300 B.C.
(d) 124 A.D.
Answer. (b)

5. Which of the following were characteristics of
The Paleolithic Age in India?
1. It was in this age that modern man
termed by anthropologists as homo
Sapiens emerged.
2. Man during this period learned to live a
Settled life.
3. In order to save himself from animals he
used to lead his life in groups.
4. Tools found in all parts of the sub-continent
during this period were mostly made of quartzite.
5. The people of this period lived either in
Rock-shelters or in huts with thatched roofs.
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 (b) 1, 2, 4
(c) 1, 3, 4, 5 (d) 1 and 5
ANSWER. (c)


6. Which was the first metal used by man?
(a) Copper
(b) Silver
(c) Bronze
(d) Brass
ANSWER. (a)

7. The first weekly Bengali newspaper ‘Samachar Darpan’ was published by:
(a) Harish Chandra Mukherjee
(b) Dinabandhu Mitra
(c) Marshman
(d) Vidyasagar
Answer. (c)

8. The founder of Boy Scouts and Civil Guides Movement in India was:
(a) Charles Andrews
(b) Baden Powell
(c) Richard Temple
(d) Robert Montgomery
Answer. (b)

9. The Indus Valley Civilization flourished during
(a) 5000-3500 B.C
(b) 3000-1500 B.C
(c) 2500-1750 B.C
(d) 1500-500 B.C
ANSWER. (c)



10. During the Neolithic age in India, the only metal known
to the people was:
(a) Iron
(b) Copper
(c) Gold
(d) Silver
ANSWER. (b)

11. The Albert Bill agitation led to the foundation of which one of the following?
(a) Indian Association
(b) All India National Conference
(c) British Indian Association
(d) Jatiya Sabha
Answer. (b)


12. The maximum work in popularising female education in the nineteenth century was done
by:
(a) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) J.E.D. Bethune
(c) D.K. Karve
(d) The British Government
Answer. (a)

13. Who were the first to issue gold coins?
(a) Indo Greeks
(b) Shakas
(c) Parthians
(d) Kushans
Answer. (a)

14. The great grammarian Patanjali of ancient India was whose contemporary among
the following?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Ashoka
(c) Pushyamitra Sunga
(d) Susarman Kanva
Answer. (c)


15. Which of the following rulers was adomed with the title of ‘Maharajadhiraja’
(King of Kings)?
(a) Chandragupta Maurya
(b) Kanishka
(c) Chandragupta I
(d) Ashoka
Answer. (c)


16. The Council of the ‘Nine Gems’ is associated with:
(a) Ballala Sena
(b) Harshavardhana
(c) Chandragupta ll
(d) Devapala
Answer. (c)

17. The reform movement among the Muslims started by Sir Syeed Khan is known as Movement.
(a) Sufi
(b) Khilafat
(c) Wahabi
(d) Aligarh
Answer. (d)

18. Who among the following Peshwas was popularly known as Nana-Saheb?
(a) Balaji Vishwanath
(b) Baji Rao
(c) Balaji Baji Rao
(d) Madhav Rao l
Answer. (c)

19. Which one of the following contains the Gayatri Mantra?
(a) Rigveda
(b) Yajurveda
(c) Upanishad
(d) Samaveda
ANSWER. (a)

20. Which God lost his importance as the first deity during the Later Vedic period?
(a) Varuna
(b) Agni
(c) Indra
(d) Rudra
ANSWER. (a)

GK MCQ Model Test for exams

GK MCQ Model Test for exams
1. Who amongst the following has never held post of the Governor of the RBI?
(1) C. Rangarajan
(2) l.K. Jha
(3) Manmohan Singh
(4) Bimal Jalan
(5) Usha Thorat
ANSWER: (5)


2. Which of the following cannot be called as the direct effect(s) of ‘Rise
of the BRlCs’ on global/other powerful economy/ economies?
(A) Countries like China wish to learn more about outsourcing from India.
(B) lt has made countries to suffer from Sub-prime Crisis.
(C) EURO has become a powerful currency and many non-Euro countries are in
‘Swap Agreement' with various nations.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) All A,B & C
(5) None of these
ANSWER: (2)

3. As per the reports published in the newspapers the banks, particularly public
sector banks are tying up with various rating agencies for providing a qualitative
assessment of the credit needs of the borrowers. Which amongst the following
is/are such credit rating agencies in India?

(A) CARE
(B) CRISIL
(C) ULIP
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) A and B only
(4) Only C
(5) All A, B and C
ANSWER: (3)

4. ‘Sub Prime Lending’ is a term applied to the loans made to ......
(1) Those borrowers who do not have a good credit history.
(2) Those who wish to take loan against the mortgage of tangible assets.
(3) Those who have a good credit history and are known to bank since 10 years.
(4) Those borrowers who are most preferred customers of the Bank.
(5) None of the above.
ANSWER: (1)

5. As per the reports published in various journals and newspapers the ’small
borrowers’ in rural areas still prefer to take informal route for their credit needs. Which of
the following is the ‘informal route’ of credit in financial sector?
(1) Credit cards
(2) Loan against gold from financial institute
(3) Debit cards
(4) Money lender
(5) None of the above
ANSWER: (4)

6. Basel-ll norms are associated with which of the following aspects of the banking industry?
(1) Risk management
(2) Manpower planning
(3) Retirement benefits for the employees
(4) Corporate Governance
(5) None of the above
ANSWER: (1)

7. What is meant by ’Underwriting’, the term frequently used in financial sector?
(1) Under valuation of the assets.
(2) The Act of taking on a risk for a fee.
(3) Giving a Guarantee that a loan will not
become a bad loan.
(4) The act of permission to float an IPO.
(5) None of the above
ANSWER: (1)

8. Which of the following is NOT a banking/finance related term?
(1) Credit wrap
(2) EMI
(3) Held to Maturity
(4) Exposure limit
(5) Diffusion
ANSWER: (5)




9. Very often we read about the Doha Ministerial Conference 2001 in reference to
WTO negotiations. What were the major issues over which nations were of different
opinions ?
(A) Providing subsidy to agriculture.
(B) Export of patented drugs/medicines by developed nations.
(c) Restriction on natural movement of people from one nation to other.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Both A and C
(5) None of these
ANSWER: (1)

10. A National Development Fund was created by the Govt. of India a few years ago. What
was the purpose of the fund?

(A) Boost investment in social sector projects to promote education, healthcare and
employment.
(B) Capital investments in selected profitable PSES to yield adequate returns
(c) To fund revision in pay structure of central Govt. employees.
(1) Only A
(2) Only B
(3) Only C
(4) Both A & B
(5) None of these
ANSWER: (1)

11. Amongst the currency quotes USD/JPY,USD/Euro and USD/CAD, which one of the
following is referred as the base currency for quotes?
(1) US $
(2) JPY
(3) Euro
(4) CAD
(5) None of these
ANSWER: (1)

12. Expand the term FLCC.
(1) Financial Literacy and Credit Counseling
(2) Financial Literacy Communication Centre
(3) Financial Literacy Call Centre
(4) Fiscal Literacy and Credit Counseling
(5) None ofthe above
ANSWER: (1)

13. For which one of the following purposes, the Government has launched the Rajiv Awes
Yojana?
(1) To provide affordable houses to people living BPL
(2) To provide affordable houses to rural poor
(3) To provide affordable houses to minorities
(4) To provide affordable houses to slum dwellers and the urban poor
(5) None of the above
ANSWER: (4)

14. What is a fiscal deficit?

(1) It is a gap between the values of the exports and imports
(2) lt is a gap between exports and imports minus external borrowings
(3) lt is a gap between total expenditure and total receipts of the Govt.
(4) lt is a gap between total receipts minus External Borrowing
(5) None of the above
ANSWER: (3)

15. ln which one of the following countries, the rate of Income Tax is highest?
(1) US
(2) China
(3) Japan
(4) UK
(5) France
ANSWER: (3)

16. Which one of the following organizations/agencies are involved in
drafting the Union Budget of India?
(1) The Planning Commission only
(2) The Comptroller and Auditor General only
(3) Administrative Ministries only
(4) (1) & (2) only
(5)All (1), (2) & (3)
ANSWER: (3)

17. Which of the following is the book written by VS Naipaul?
(1) Magic Seeds
(2) My God Died Young
(3) The Sea
(4) My India
(5) None of the above
ANSWER: (1)



18. Between 2004 and 2009, the Government has paid Rs 700 crores as penalty to World
Bank and other international agencies. For Which one of the following reasons this
Penalty was Paid?
(1) For prepayment of loans
(2) For delay in execution of projects
(3) For delay in payment of international debts
(4) For not using the loans approved by these agencies
(5) None of the above
ANSWER: (4)

19 . Which of the following is NOT an economic empowerment scheme launched by the
Govt. of india for the benefit of various sections of society?
(1) STEP
(2) Swayamsidha
(S) KALPANA-1
(4) Swadhar
(5) All of these
ANSWER: (3)

20. Which of the following is NOT a programme/agency of the Union Ministry of
Finance?
(1) Investor Education and Protection Fund (IEPF) .
(2) National Foundation for Corporate Governance (NFCG)
(3) Serious Frauds Investigation Office (SFIO)
(4) Investment Commission
(5) Central Rural Sanitation programme
ANSWER: (1)

21. Which of the following names/terms is NOT associated with the World Trade Organization
(WTO)?
(1) UNCTAD
(2) GATT
(3) GATS
(4) SEWA
(5) FTA
ANSWER: (4)




22. Labour legislations in India have an important dimension of protection of women
from exploitation. Some special provisions are made for women in the work place.
Which of the following is NOT one such special provision?
(1) Equal pay for work of equal value
(2) Maternity protection
(3) Creche facility at the work place for infants
(4) No night shifts
(5) Cooked meals during day ‘shifts to be
provided by the employer
ANSWER: (1)

23. Within the education sector the highest priority is given to which of the following
Govt. schemes?
(1) Technical education
(2) Primary education
(3) High school education
(4) Adult education
(5) None of the above
ANSWER: (2)

24. The approach of ‘Micro-Credit’ or ‘Banking with the poor’ is comparatively a new concept
in the field of rural credit. This approach has been tried very successfully in which of the
following countries?
(1) Bangladesh
(2) lndia
(3) China
(4) Japan
(5) None of these
ANSWER: (1)


25. The Govt. of India has launched a number of poverty alleviation programmes. This is done
with the view that poverty is the root cause of social insecurity. In addition to that UNO has
also launched Millennium Development Goals to be achieved by 2015, Which of the
following is NOT one of those goals?
(1) Improve mental health
(2) Combat HIV/AIDS, Malaria
(3) Reduce marriageable age for males to 18yr
(4) Promote gender equality and empower women
(5) Achieve universal primary education
ANSWER: (3)