General Knowledge previous paper Uttaranchal C. J. Examination, 2002
PCS Civil Judge - Uttarakhand (Pre.) Exam Solved GK
Previous Year Uttarakhand P.C.S. (J) (Pre.) Exam Solved objective test
1. The theory of basic structure of the Constitution was propounded in—
(A) Indira Nehru Gandhi V/s Raj Narain
(B) I. C. Golakhnath V/s State of Punjab
(C) Kesavanand Bharati V/s State bf Kerala
(D) Maneka Gandhi V/s Union of India
Ans:-C
2. The President of India is elected by—
1. All members of Parliament.
2. Elected members of L Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
3. Elected members f the State Legislative Assemblies including National Capital
Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Pondicherry.
4. All members of State Legislative Assemblies.
Select the correct answer using the bode given below—
Code:
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans:-B
3. Which of the following combination correctly matched?
1. Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Art. 136
2. Special leave of appeal by the Supreme Court. Art. 133
3. Right to enforce Fundamental Rights only. Art. 32
4. Ordinance making power of the Governor. Art. 123
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Code:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans:-C
4. Cauvery river water sharing dispute concerns the State of—
(A) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
(B) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Gujarat
(D) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Pondicherry
Ans:-D
5. Rwanda International Criminal Tribunal has been established as per—
(A) A Resolution of the General Assembly
(B) Direction of the Secretary General
(C) Ruling of the International Court of Justice
(D) A Resolution of the Security Council
Ans:-D
6. “A State is and becomes an international person by recognition only” is claimed by—
(A) Declaratory theory
(B) Constitutive theory
(C) Evidentiary theory
(D) Napoleon
Ans:-B
7. The International Court of Justice is to be located at—
(A) Rome
(B) New York
(C) The Hague
(D) Geneva
Ans:-C
8. Which one of the following is NOT the function of the Economic and Social Council?
(A) Promotion of economic and social development
(B) Promotion of better standards of human welfare
(C) Supervision and control of the functions of specialised agencies
(D) Observance of human rights and fundamental freedoms
Ans:-D
9. Jus Cogens denotes—
(A) Superiority of States
(B) Dominance of U.S.A. over other States
(C) Premptory norm of International Law
(D) Superiority of United Nations
Ans:-C
10. With a view to give effect to an International Agreement, Par1iamer enacts a law on a subject enumerated in State list without consulting the affected States. The law—
(A) Is invalid as it encroaches upon exclusive powers of State Legislatures
(B) Shall become invalid only to the extent of conflict with State law which the State may make in future
(C) Is fully valid as Parliament is empowered to make such a law in order to give effect to an International Agreement; even though it encroaches upon State’s exclusive power of legislation?
(D) Is null and void
Ans:-C
11. “Succession of Government” means change of—
(A) External sovereignty
(B) Internal sovereignty through constitutional or revolutionary processes
(C)Prime Minister
(D)The administrative system
Ans:-B
12. “Dualism” denotes that International law and State law—
(A) Represent two entirely distinct legal systems
(B) Are concomitant aspects of the one system-law in general?
(C) Are not enforceable
(D) Are not binding
Ans:-A
13. Inspite of the fact that Veto is inconsistent with the principle of sovereign equality of all members, Veto is vested with permanent members of U.N. for— -
(A) Striking a balance between super powers
(B) Maintaining international peace and security
(C) Political reasons
(D) Obstructing the power of non-permanent members of the Security Council
Ans:-B
14. Article 21 of the Constitution of India incorporates the right to “Doctor’s assistance.” In which of the following cases this was decided?
(A) Charles Sobhraj V/s Supdt. Of Central Jail
(B) Hoskot V/s State of Maharashtra
(C) Sunil Batra V/s Delhi Administration
(D) Parmanand Katara V/s Union of India
Ans:-D
15. In which of the following cases the doctrine of “prospective over-ruling” was applied?
(A) Shankari Prasad V/s Union of India
(B) Sajjan Singh V/s State of Rajasthan
(C) I. C. Golaknath V/s State of Punjab
(D) Kesavanand Bharati V/s State of Kerala
Ans:-C
16. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India gives power to the
Election Commission of India to “Superintendence, direction and control” of elections?
(A) Article 324
(B) Article 325
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 327
Ans:-A
17. Advertisement is a “Commercial Speech” was laid down in—
(A) Humdard Dawakhana V/s Union of India
(B) Express Newspapers (P) Ltd. V/s Union of India
(C) Bennet Coleman and Co. V/s Union of India
(D) Tata Press Ltd. V/s Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd.
Ans:-D
18. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 was adopted by—
(A) The Security Council
(B) The General Assembly
(C) The General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council
(D) Economic and Social Council on the recommendation of the Security Council
Ans:-B
19. The tenure of the Judges of International
Court of Justice is—
(A) Three years
(B) Five years
(C) Seven years
(D) Nine years
Ans:-D
20. The National Human Rights Commission was established in India on—
(A) 27th September, 1993
(B) 18th December, 1993
(C) 1st January, 1994
(D) 2nd October, 1993
Ans:-A
21. Which one of the following organisations is directly related to the Child Welfare?
(A) UNESCO
(B) ILO
(C) UNICEF
(D) WTO
Ans:-C
22. Who is said to be “The Father of Modern International Law”?
(A) Gentilis
(B) Grotius
(C) Lauterpacht
(D) Thomas Rutherforth
Ans:-B
23. Who said that “International Law is the vanishing point of Jurisprudence”?
(A) Austin
(B) Salmond
(C) Holland
(D) Oppenheim
Ans:-C
24. Who amongst the following was member of the International Court of Justice?
(A) Justice J.S. Verma
(B) Dr. Nagendra Singh
(C) Justice P.N. Bhagati
(D) Justice Dr. A.S. Anand
Ans:-B
25. The first Secretary General of the United Nations was—
(A) Dag Hammarskjöld
(B) Kurt Waldheim
(C) U. Thant
(D) Trigve Lie
Ans:-D
26. The United Nations Day is celebrated every year on—
(A) 26th January
(B) 24th October
(C) 26th November
(D) 10th December
Ans:-B
27. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the U.N. General Assembly on—
(A) l0th December, 1945
(B) 10th December, 1946
(C) 10th December, 1948
(D) 26th October, 1945
Ans:-C
28. In India ‘Law Day’ is celebrated every year on—
(A) 5th April
(B) 5th July
(C) 26th November
(D) 10th December
Ans:-C
29. Which one of the following is a third generation Human Right?
(A) Right to work
(B) Right to education
(C) Right to freedom of religion
(D) Right to development
Ans:-D
30. The International Court of Justice consists of—
(A) The President, the Vice-President and 13 other members
(B) The President, Vice-President and 14 other members
(C) The President, Vice-President and 15 other members
(D) The President and 15 other members
Ans:-A
31. Which one is a neutralised State?
(A) Austria
(B) Australia
(C) Canada
(D) India
Ans:-A
32. In the appointment of a Supreme Court Judge, primacy is given to the opinion of—
(A) The Chief Justice of India
(B) Union Law Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India and other three senior Judges of the Supreme Court
(D) The Prime Minister
Ans:-A
33. The quorum of the International Court of Justice is—
(A) 15 Judges
(B) 8 Judges
(C) 9 Judges
(D) 5 Judges
Ans:-C
34. The writ of Mandamus is issued to enforce—
(A) Arbitrary actions
(B) Mandatory duties
(C) Discretionary powers
(D) None of the above
Ans:-
35. Assertion (A): Article 21 expressly incorporates the concept of due process of law.
Reason (R) : Due process of law is an attribute of liberty
Choose the correct answer using the code given below—
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-A
36. Indicate the sequence in which the following were established—
1. International Labour Organisation
2. International War Crimes Tribunal for former Yugoslavia
3. Nuremberg Military Tribunal
4. International Court of Justice
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Code:
(A) 1, 2, 4 and 3
(B) 1, 3, 4 and 2
(C) l, 3, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 1, 3 and 4
Ans:-B
37. ‘Core Crimes’ listed in the Statute of the International Criminal Court are—
(A) 20
(B) 10
(C) 4
(D)8
Ans:-C
38. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to—
(A) The Parliament
(B) The Lok Sabha
(C) The Rajya Sabha
(D) The Prime Minister
Ans:-B
39. The question of disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha on the ground of defection is determined by—
(A) The Deputy Speaker
(B) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A member elected by Lok Sabha
(D) The President of India
Ans:-C
40. Who among the following has primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security?
(A) The Secretary General
(B) The Security Council
(C) The General Assembly
(D) The International Court of Justice
Ans:-B
41. ‘CHOGM 2000’ with 51 members Conference was held at—
(A) Kualam
(B) Copenhagen
(C) Harare
(D) Dublin
Ans:-A
42. The rules of neutrality were codified in—
(A) 1856 and 1899
(B) 1868 and 1900
(C) 1856 and 1907
(D) 1899 and 1930
Ans:-C
43. Assertion (A) : In principle the members of the United Nations cannot remain neutral.
Reason (R) : A permanent member of the Security Council who abstains from voting can remain neutral
Choose the correct answer by using the code given below—
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-A
44. Match List-I and List—TI and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists— List-I
(Even)
(a) First Earth Summit
(b) Protection and Improvement of Human Environment
(c) Second Earth Summit
(d) Kyoto Protocol
List—II
(Year)
1. 1972
2. 1992
3. 1997
4. 2002
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans:-B
45. On assuming office, President D. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam returned the very first Ordinance without his signature. It was related to—
(A) Dissolution of Gujarat Legislative Assembly
(B) Imposition of President’s rule in Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Election reforms as suggested by the Supreme Court
(D) Disinvestment of life Insurance corporation of India
Ans:-C
46. Most of the rights of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights are incorporated in—
(A) Part—III and Part-IV of our Constitution
(B) Part—I and Part—V of our Constitution
(C) Part—VII of our Constitution
(D) Articles 308-311 of our Constitution
Ans:-A
47. Match List-I and List—TI and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists— List-I
(Case)
(a) S. R. Bommai V/s Union of India
(b) P.V. Narsimha Rao V/s State
(c) A.D.M. Jabalpur V/s Shiva Kant Shukla
(d) Lily Thomas V/s Union of India
List-II
(Article of hid. Const. Involved)
1.Art.21
2.Art. 356
3.Art. 105
4. Art. 44
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B ) 1 3 2 4
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans:-C
48. The Supreme Court has traced the right to privacy in—
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 22
Ans:-A
49. The Judges of the International Court of Justice are—
(A) Elected by the General Assembly and the Security Council
(B) Nominated by the International Law Commission
(C) Selected by the Secretary General
(D) Appointed by the Security Council
Ans:-A
50. The Information Technology Act, 2000 has been enacted by our Parliament—
(A) On the basis of a Resolution of the U.N. General Assembly
(B) On the advice of the President of India
(C) As directed by the Supreme Court
(D) On request from the State of Karnataka
Ans:-A
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