Practice Gk Questions For Kaun banega Crorepati KBC
KBC questions and answers Sample Quiz Questions
1. H.U.D.C.O. stands for:
(a) Housing and Urban Development
Corporation
(b) High under Development Corporation
(c) The name of an Americal leading oil Company
Answer. (a)
2 ‘Arthashastra’ was written by
(a) Kalidas
(b) Kautilya
(c) R.K. Narayan
(d) Bana Bhatt
Answer. (b)
3. Who wrote ‘Pakistan Cut to Size’?
(a) Frank Moraes
(b) D.R. Mankekar
(c) Kuldeep Nayyar
(d) Anthony Mascarenhas
Answer. (b)
4. Who said “fools rush in where angels fear to
tread” ?
(a) The Bible
(b) John Milton
(c) Alexander Pope
(d) Dr. Samuel Johnson
Answer. (c)
5. “I have not become His Majesty’s First
Minister to liquidate the British Empire”
Who said it?
(a) Clement Attlee
(b) Winston Churchill
(c) Chamberlain
(d) Anthony Eden
Answer. (b)
6. The first Indian railway line was opened by
The British:
(a) From Delhi to Bombay
(b) From Bombay to Thane
(c) From Calcutta to Allahabad
(d) From Bombay to Madras
Answer. (b)
7. India liberated Goa from the Portuguese in:
(a) 1948
(b) 1965
(c) 1961
(d) 1960
Answer. (c)
8. Tick out the name of the country in Which the relics of cultural influence of
Ancient India are still present in the form of
Temples:
(a) Egypt
(b) Malaya
(C) Cambodia
(d) Thailand
Answer. (c)
9.In which year Akbar died ?
(a) 1605
(b) 1660
(c) 1603
(d) 1604
Answer. (a)
10. The Arab invasion of Sind took place in:
(6) 66 A.D.
(b) 326 B.C.
(6) 712 A.D.
(6) 1191 A.D.
Answer. (c)
11. The Third Battle of Panipat was fought Between:
(a) The British and French
(b) The Marathas and The British
(c) The Mughals and Shershah Suri
(d) Ahmed Shah Abdali and The Marathas
Answer. (d)
12. Who was the British Governor General in India in whose reign a part of Charter Act Read like this,
“No native of India, nor natural Born subject of His Majesty, should be
Disabled from holding any place, office of Employment by reason of his religion, place of birth, descent or colour.”
(a) Lord Comwallis
(b) Lord Hastings
(c) Lord William Bentinck
(d) Lord Dalhousie
Answer. (c)
13.To which dynasty did the Ashoka belong:
(a) Gupta
(b) Maurya
(c) Vardhan
(d) None of these
Answer. (b)
14. What is the most important events of the
Following date?
24-10-1945
(a) The end of 2nd World War
(b) Dropping of Atom Bomb on
Hiroshima and Nagasaki in Japan
(c) The founding of the U.N.O.
(d) None of these
Answer. (c)
15.What is the most important event of the
Following date?
16-12-1971
(a) Man set foot on the moon for the
First time
(b) Liberation of Bangladesh
(c) Outbreak of hostilities between India
And Pakistan
(d) India accorded recognition to the
Republic of Bangladesh
Answer. (b)
16. In which year was the Spanish Armada Defeated by the British?
(6) 1588
(b) 1589
(C) 1603
(d) 1590
Answer. (a)
17. Who was the King of France at the time of
French Revolution?
(a) Louis XVI
(b) Louis XV
(c) Louis XIV
(d) Louis XVII
Answer. (a)
18. The main allies of England in the World War II were:
(a) France, Austria and Italy
(b) France, U.S.A. and U.S.S.R
(c) U.S.A., France and Belgium
(d) China,japan,Italy
Answer. (b)
19. Which is the national animal of India?
(a) Lion
(b) Tiger
(c) Leopard
(d) Cow
Answer. (b)
20. Name the Most populated city in India:
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Calcutta
(d) Chennai
Answer. (a)
Wednesday, August 31, 2011
Tuesday, August 30, 2011
Current Gk Practice test For SSC Sub-Inspectors in CPO Exam
Current Gk Practice test For SSC Sub-Inspectors in CPO Exam
Free Practice GK Questions for Staff Selection Commission (SSC), Central Police Organisations exams
1. The ‘Green House’ effect is mostly caused by?
(A) Carbon-dioxide in the atmosphere
(B) Infra-red Radiation
(C) Moisture in the atmosphere
(D) Ozone layer
Ans : A
2. Under the National Population Policy 2000, the goal to attain
‘population stabilization’ has been revised from 2045 to?
(A) 2055
(B) 2060
(C) 2065
(D) 2070
Ans : D
3. The Antarctic Study Centre of India is located at?
(A) Dakshin Gangotri
(B) Gangotri
(C) Goa
(D) Maitri
Ans : D
4. The orderly sequence of change in the vegetation of an area over time is described as?
(A) Biomes
(B) Succession
(C) Trophic level
(D) Climax
Ans : A
5. In South Asia, the country with largest percentage of aged population is—
(A) Bhutan
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans : D
6. About eighty per cent of the world’s population is not protected by?
(A) Economic security
(B) Food security
(C) Child security
(D) Social security
Ans : B
7. Which one of the following is the correct descending order of the percentage of urbanization f the following South Asia tries?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Bangladesh
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Sri Lanka
Codes:
(A) 2,3,l and 4
(B) 3,2,l and 4
(C) 2,1,4 and 3
(D) 4,2,3, and l
Ans : B
8. Assertion (A) : India’s level of urbanization is much lower than that of China.
Reason (R) : Indian cities are poorly planned.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : B
9. Assertion (A) : The inter-state movement of coal forms a major component of inter-state traffic handled by railways.
Reason (R) : Bengal-Jharkhand coal-fields are major source of coal supply to the north-western states.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : B
10. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Tamil Nadu has recorded highest increase in urbanization rates during 1961—2001.
2. The average size of an urban centre in India comes to around forty-five thousand
(45,000).
3. The largest number of urban centres fall in the category of class IV.
4. Class V and VI towns share over five per cent (5%) of the country’s total urban population.
Select the correct answer from
the codes given below:
(A)l and 2
(B) 2,3and4
(C)1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : C
11. The correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in power sector in India is?
(A) Thermal > Hydro > Nuclear> Wind
(B) Thermal > Nuclear >Hydro > Wind
(C) Hydro > Nuclear >Thermal > Wind
(D) Nuclear > Hydro > Wind> Thermal
Ans : A
12. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Northern cities of India have in general, an unbalanced sex-ratio.
2. The eastern cities are scat tered as against concentration of western cities.
3. There is larger participation of women in the labour force in the south due to small proportion of christians in the population as also the high literacy rate.
4. Western cities have lower proportion of immigrants from rural areas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Ans : B
13.The largest producer of wine in the world is?
(A) France
(B) Italy
(C) Spain
(D) United States of America
Ans : A
14. ‘Monoculture’ is a distinct characteristic of?
(A) Commercial grain-farming
(B) Shifting cultivation
(C) Subsistence farming
(D) Organic farming
Ans : A
15. ‘Foehn’ is a local wind of—
(A)China
(B) Korea
(C)Japan
(D) Switzerland
Ans : D
16. The highest percentage of the world’s forest cover is associated with—
(A) Temperate Coniferous Forests
(B) Temperate Deciduous Forests
(C) Tropical Monsoon Forests
(D) Tropical Rain Forests
Ans : A
17.Among the iron-producing countries of Europe, France stands—
(A)First
(B) Second
(C)Third
(D) Fourth
Ans : B
18. Which of the following countries suffer most from ‘Acid rains’ ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Canada
2. Norway
3. Sweden
4. United Kingdom
Codes:
(A) l and 2
(B) l and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : C
19. Rampura, which became the first village in India to have its solar power plant, is situated in—
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : D
20. The two leading producers of coal in India are?
(A) Jharkhand and Orissa
(B) Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh
(C) Chhatisgarh and Madhya Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
Ans : B
21. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) NathuLa— Arunachal Pradesh
(B)Lipulekh —Uttarakhand
(C)Rohtang —Himachal Pradesh
(D)Palghat —Kerala
Ans : A
22. The percentage of forest cover with reference to the total geo graphical area is highest in?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Nagaland
(C) Tripura
(D) Mizoram
Ans : D
23. Assertion (A) : The river of western ghats do not form delta.
Reason (R): They flow through short courses with high speed over hard-rocks.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : C
24.Which one of the following is the
youngest mountain chain?
(A) Vindhyas
(B) Aravaffi
(C) Shivaliks
(D) Annamalai
Ans : C
25. The average size of operational holdings in India is largest in—
(A) Punjab
(B) Gujarat
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D)Rajasthan
Ans : C
26. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Richest deposits of iron ore are found in Karnataka.
2. India is the second largest producer of iron ore in the world.
3. Orissa is the largest proDucer of iron ore in India.
Codes:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2and 3
(C) l and 3
(D) All are correct
Ans : C
27. Which state of India has the maximum length of state High ways?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : A
28. During his stay in Delhi in November 2010, President Barack Obama visited—
(A) Humayun’s tomb
(B) Jama Masjid
(C) Qutub Minar
(D) Red Fort
Ans : A
29. The winner of Booker Prize 2010 was?
(A) Howard Jacobson
(B) J. M. Coetzee
(C) Peter Carey
(D) Tom Macarthy
Ans : A
30. In November 2010 Nikki Haley, an Indian American, was elected governor of—
(A) Illinois
(B) North Carolina
(C) South Carolina
(D) Virginia
Ans : C
31. The ‘Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna’ Award 2010 was given to?
(A) Mary Kom
(B) Saina Nehwal
(C) Sushil Kumar
(D) Vijender Singh
Ans : B
32. In the Nineteenth (XIX) Com monwealth Games, the Indian athlete who won the highest number of gold medals, was—
(A) Gagan Narang
(B) Gurpreet Singh
(C) Omkar Singh
(D) Vijay Kumar
Ans : A
33. The I.C.C. “One Day Player of the Year” for 2010 was ?
(A) A. B. deVilliers
(B) Ryan Harris
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D)Shane Watson
Ans : A
34. Which three of the following Indian performing Art forms
have been included in the Intangible Cultural Heritage of
Humanity by the UNESCO?
1. Mridiyettu of Kerala.
2. Chhau of East India.
3. Kalbelia of Rajasthan.
4. Kuchipudi of Andhra Pradesh.
Select the correct answer from
the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : D
35. The International Food Policy Research Institute, U.S.A. has released ‘Global Hunger Index 2010’ in October 2010, according to which, India’s rank is—
(A) 65th
(B) 66th
(C) 67th
(D) 68th
Ans : C
36. Among the following, who won the largest number of gold
medals in the Commonwealth Games 2010?
(A) Kristin Gerard
(B) Marriluss Prevost
(C) Alicia Zen Couts
(D) Prone Pears
Ans : B
37.The world’s biggest solar power station has been opened in—
(A) Australia
(B) England
(C)France
(D) Germany
Ans : D
38. According to the Annual Forbes India Rich List, who is the richest
lady in India (November2010)?
(A) Ms. Mrinalini Sarabhai
(B) Ms. Namrata Bhartia
(C) Mrs. Savitri Jindal
(D) Ms. Rajshree Pathy
Ans : C
39. Which one of the following attributes is not consistent with the rest of them?
(A) Bravery
(B) Loyalty
(C) Honesty
(D) Cunningness
Ans : D
40. National Green Tribunal Act 2010 relates to?
(A) Green Fuel usage
(B) Promotion of Alternate sources of Energy
(C) Conservation of Environment
(D) Creation of Green-Courts
Ans : C
Free Practice GK Questions for Staff Selection Commission (SSC), Central Police Organisations exams
1. The ‘Green House’ effect is mostly caused by?
(A) Carbon-dioxide in the atmosphere
(B) Infra-red Radiation
(C) Moisture in the atmosphere
(D) Ozone layer
Ans : A
2. Under the National Population Policy 2000, the goal to attain
‘population stabilization’ has been revised from 2045 to?
(A) 2055
(B) 2060
(C) 2065
(D) 2070
Ans : D
3. The Antarctic Study Centre of India is located at?
(A) Dakshin Gangotri
(B) Gangotri
(C) Goa
(D) Maitri
Ans : D
4. The orderly sequence of change in the vegetation of an area over time is described as?
(A) Biomes
(B) Succession
(C) Trophic level
(D) Climax
Ans : A
5. In South Asia, the country with largest percentage of aged population is—
(A) Bhutan
(B) India
(C) Nepal
(D) Sri Lanka
Ans : D
6. About eighty per cent of the world’s population is not protected by?
(A) Economic security
(B) Food security
(C) Child security
(D) Social security
Ans : B
7. Which one of the following is the correct descending order of the percentage of urbanization f the following South Asia tries?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Bangladesh
2. India
3. Pakistan
4. Sri Lanka
Codes:
(A) 2,3,l and 4
(B) 3,2,l and 4
(C) 2,1,4 and 3
(D) 4,2,3, and l
Ans : B
8. Assertion (A) : India’s level of urbanization is much lower than that of China.
Reason (R) : Indian cities are poorly planned.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : B
9. Assertion (A) : The inter-state movement of coal forms a major component of inter-state traffic handled by railways.
Reason (R) : Bengal-Jharkhand coal-fields are major source of coal supply to the north-western states.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A)Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : B
10. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. Tamil Nadu has recorded highest increase in urbanization rates during 1961—2001.
2. The average size of an urban centre in India comes to around forty-five thousand
(45,000).
3. The largest number of urban centres fall in the category of class IV.
4. Class V and VI towns share over five per cent (5%) of the country’s total urban population.
Select the correct answer from
the codes given below:
(A)l and 2
(B) 2,3and4
(C)1 and 3
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : C
11. The correct sequence of energy sources in order of their share in power sector in India is?
(A) Thermal > Hydro > Nuclear> Wind
(B) Thermal > Nuclear >Hydro > Wind
(C) Hydro > Nuclear >Thermal > Wind
(D) Nuclear > Hydro > Wind> Thermal
Ans : A
12. Which of the following statements are correct?
1. The Northern cities of India have in general, an unbalanced sex-ratio.
2. The eastern cities are scat tered as against concentration of western cities.
3. There is larger participation of women in the labour force in the south due to small proportion of christians in the population as also the high literacy rate.
4. Western cities have lower proportion of immigrants from rural areas.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 3
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 2 and 4
(D) 1, 3 and 4
Ans : B
13.The largest producer of wine in the world is?
(A) France
(B) Italy
(C) Spain
(D) United States of America
Ans : A
14. ‘Monoculture’ is a distinct characteristic of?
(A) Commercial grain-farming
(B) Shifting cultivation
(C) Subsistence farming
(D) Organic farming
Ans : A
15. ‘Foehn’ is a local wind of—
(A)China
(B) Korea
(C)Japan
(D) Switzerland
Ans : D
16. The highest percentage of the world’s forest cover is associated with—
(A) Temperate Coniferous Forests
(B) Temperate Deciduous Forests
(C) Tropical Monsoon Forests
(D) Tropical Rain Forests
Ans : A
17.Among the iron-producing countries of Europe, France stands—
(A)First
(B) Second
(C)Third
(D) Fourth
Ans : B
18. Which of the following countries suffer most from ‘Acid rains’ ?
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Canada
2. Norway
3. Sweden
4. United Kingdom
Codes:
(A) l and 2
(B) l and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3
(D) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : C
19. Rampura, which became the first village in India to have its solar power plant, is situated in—
(A) Madhya Pradesh
(B) Himachal Pradesh
(C) Andhra Pradesh
(D) Uttar Pradesh
Ans : D
20. The two leading producers of coal in India are?
(A) Jharkhand and Orissa
(B) Jharkhand and Chhattisgarh
(C) Chhatisgarh and Madhya Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
Ans : B
21. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) NathuLa— Arunachal Pradesh
(B)Lipulekh —Uttarakhand
(C)Rohtang —Himachal Pradesh
(D)Palghat —Kerala
Ans : A
22. The percentage of forest cover with reference to the total geo graphical area is highest in?
(A) Arunachal Pradesh
(B) Nagaland
(C) Tripura
(D) Mizoram
Ans : D
23. Assertion (A) : The river of western ghats do not form delta.
Reason (R): They flow through short courses with high speed over hard-rocks.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans : C
24.Which one of the following is the
youngest mountain chain?
(A) Vindhyas
(B) Aravaffi
(C) Shivaliks
(D) Annamalai
Ans : C
25. The average size of operational holdings in India is largest in—
(A) Punjab
(B) Gujarat
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D)Rajasthan
Ans : C
26. Consider the following statements and select the correct answer from the codes given below:
1. Richest deposits of iron ore are found in Karnataka.
2. India is the second largest producer of iron ore in the world.
3. Orissa is the largest proDucer of iron ore in India.
Codes:
(A) 1 only
(B) 2and 3
(C) l and 3
(D) All are correct
Ans : C
27. Which state of India has the maximum length of state High ways?
(A) Uttar Pradesh
(B) Bihar
(C) Madhya Pradesh
(D) Maharashtra
Ans : A
28. During his stay in Delhi in November 2010, President Barack Obama visited—
(A) Humayun’s tomb
(B) Jama Masjid
(C) Qutub Minar
(D) Red Fort
Ans : A
29. The winner of Booker Prize 2010 was?
(A) Howard Jacobson
(B) J. M. Coetzee
(C) Peter Carey
(D) Tom Macarthy
Ans : A
30. In November 2010 Nikki Haley, an Indian American, was elected governor of—
(A) Illinois
(B) North Carolina
(C) South Carolina
(D) Virginia
Ans : C
31. The ‘Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna’ Award 2010 was given to?
(A) Mary Kom
(B) Saina Nehwal
(C) Sushil Kumar
(D) Vijender Singh
Ans : B
32. In the Nineteenth (XIX) Com monwealth Games, the Indian athlete who won the highest number of gold medals, was—
(A) Gagan Narang
(B) Gurpreet Singh
(C) Omkar Singh
(D) Vijay Kumar
Ans : A
33. The I.C.C. “One Day Player of the Year” for 2010 was ?
(A) A. B. deVilliers
(B) Ryan Harris
(C) Sachin Tendulkar
(D)Shane Watson
Ans : A
34. Which three of the following Indian performing Art forms
have been included in the Intangible Cultural Heritage of
Humanity by the UNESCO?
1. Mridiyettu of Kerala.
2. Chhau of East India.
3. Kalbelia of Rajasthan.
4. Kuchipudi of Andhra Pradesh.
Select the correct answer from
the codes given below:
Codes:
(A) 1, 2 and 4
(B) 2, 3 and 4
(C) 1, 3 and 4
(D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans : D
35. The International Food Policy Research Institute, U.S.A. has released ‘Global Hunger Index 2010’ in October 2010, according to which, India’s rank is—
(A) 65th
(B) 66th
(C) 67th
(D) 68th
Ans : C
36. Among the following, who won the largest number of gold
medals in the Commonwealth Games 2010?
(A) Kristin Gerard
(B) Marriluss Prevost
(C) Alicia Zen Couts
(D) Prone Pears
Ans : B
37.The world’s biggest solar power station has been opened in—
(A) Australia
(B) England
(C)France
(D) Germany
Ans : D
38. According to the Annual Forbes India Rich List, who is the richest
lady in India (November2010)?
(A) Ms. Mrinalini Sarabhai
(B) Ms. Namrata Bhartia
(C) Mrs. Savitri Jindal
(D) Ms. Rajshree Pathy
Ans : C
39. Which one of the following attributes is not consistent with the rest of them?
(A) Bravery
(B) Loyalty
(C) Honesty
(D) Cunningness
Ans : D
40. National Green Tribunal Act 2010 relates to?
(A) Green Fuel usage
(B) Promotion of Alternate sources of Energy
(C) Conservation of Environment
(D) Creation of Green-Courts
Ans : C
Model test paper For nurse jobs : Biology Zoology
Model test paper For nurse jobs : Biology Zoology
NURSING WRITTEN TEST SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. Biologists who study the sequences of organisms in the fossil record are
(a) Taxonomists
(b) Palaeobiologists
(c) Misologists
(d) Systematists
Ans. (b)
2. Fossils are now date by
(a) stratigraphic period
(b) studying their association with other mammals
(c) amount of calcium present as residue
(d) radioactive carbon content
Ans. (d)
3. Dinosaurs were abundant in
(a) Jurassic
(b) Devonian
(c) Pennian
(d) Pleistocene
Ans. (a)
4. Paleontological evidence in favour of organic evolution is beautifully illustrated by
(a) Duck billed Platypus
(b) Archaeopteryx
(c) Darwin’s finches
(d) Peppered moth
Ans. (b)
5. Which one of the following animals exhibits connecting link evolution?
(a) Limulus
(b) Sphenodon
(c) Peripatus
(d) Pheretima
Ans. (c)
6. Mammary glands are modified
(a) Sebaceous gland
(b) Sweat gland
(c) Oil gland
(d) Lymph gland
Ans. (b)
7. Homologous structures have
(a) dissimilar origin and dissimilar functions
(b) dissimilar origin but similar functions
(c) similar origin but similar or dissimilar functions
(d) dissimilar origin and dissimilar structure
Ans. (c)
8. Analogous organs have a
(a) common embryonic origin but perform different functions
(b) different embryonic origin and perform different functions
(c) common embryonic origin and perform similar functions
(d) different embryonic origin but perform similar functions
Ans. (d)
9. Which of the following tissue has matrix, which is the source of its structural and functional performances?
(a) Connective tissue
(b) Muscular tissue
(c) Nervous tissue
(d) Epithelial tissue
Ans. (a)
10. Which of the following is an example of analogy?
(a) Limb of horse and man
(b) Wings of pigeon of bat
(c) Wings of bird and butterfly
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
11. Ground substances and fibers in the connective tissue are the secretory products of
(a) Mast cells
(b) Reticular cells
(c) Plasma cells
(d) Fibroblasts
Ans. (d)
12. Which of the following is a vestigial organ in the human body?
(a) Eyelid
(b) Eyelash
(c) Liver
(d) Appendix
Ans. (d)
13. The camel’s hump is composed of a tissue that provides water when oxidized
(a) Skeletal
(b) Areolar
(c) Muscular
(d) Adipose
Ans. (d)
14. The essence of Haeckel’s Recapitulation theory is:
(a) inheritance of acquired characters
(b) alternation of generations
(c) ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(d) prodigality of reproduction
Ans. (c)
15. The white fibrous tissue occurs in
(a) Ligaments
(b) Cartilage
(c) Tendons
(d) Bone
Ans. (c)
16. Biogenetic law was propounded by
(a) Von Baer and Haeckel
(b) Von Bier and Aristotle
(c) Haeckel and Mendel
(d) Mendel and Griffith
Ans. (a)
17. Which animal has become extinct recently?
(a) Draco
(b) Dinosaur
(c) Pteridosperms
(d) Mammoth
Ans. (d)
18. Lamarck belongs to
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Sweden
(d) Austria
Ans. (b)
19. Grafting is not possible in monocots because they
(a) Have scattered vascular bundles
(b) Have parallel venation
(c) Are herbaceous
(d) Lack cambium
Ans. (d)
20. Ligaments are made up of
(a) White fibers and some yellow elastic fibers
(b) White fibers only
(c) Yellow fibers only
(d) Yellow fibers and muscle fibers
Ans. (a)
21. A tissue is a
(a) A group of separate organs that are co ordinate in their activities
(b) Group of similar cells tat function together in a specialized activity
(c) Layer of cells surrounding an organ
(d) Sheet of cells, one layer thick
Ans. (b)
22. The major constituent of vertebrate bone is
(a) Calcium phosphate
(b) Potassium hydroxide
(c) Sodium chloride
(d) Calcium carbonate
Ans. (a)
23. Which type of tissue forms the inner lining of a blood vessel?
(a) Epithelial
(b) Connective
(c) Muscle
(d) Nervous
Ans. (a)
24. A bone left in dilute HCI for about three days will
(a) Crack into pieces
(b) Become soft and elastic
(c) Dissolve completely
(d) Remain as it is
Ans. (b)
25. Epithelial tissue with thin flat cells appearing like packed tiles occur on
(a) Inner lining of stomach
(b) Inner lining of fallopian tube
(c) Inner lining of cheek
(d) Outer surface of ovary
Ans. (c)
NURSING WRITTEN TEST SAMPLE QUESTIONS
1. Biologists who study the sequences of organisms in the fossil record are
(a) Taxonomists
(b) Palaeobiologists
(c) Misologists
(d) Systematists
Ans. (b)
2. Fossils are now date by
(a) stratigraphic period
(b) studying their association with other mammals
(c) amount of calcium present as residue
(d) radioactive carbon content
Ans. (d)
3. Dinosaurs were abundant in
(a) Jurassic
(b) Devonian
(c) Pennian
(d) Pleistocene
Ans. (a)
4. Paleontological evidence in favour of organic evolution is beautifully illustrated by
(a) Duck billed Platypus
(b) Archaeopteryx
(c) Darwin’s finches
(d) Peppered moth
Ans. (b)
5. Which one of the following animals exhibits connecting link evolution?
(a) Limulus
(b) Sphenodon
(c) Peripatus
(d) Pheretima
Ans. (c)
6. Mammary glands are modified
(a) Sebaceous gland
(b) Sweat gland
(c) Oil gland
(d) Lymph gland
Ans. (b)
7. Homologous structures have
(a) dissimilar origin and dissimilar functions
(b) dissimilar origin but similar functions
(c) similar origin but similar or dissimilar functions
(d) dissimilar origin and dissimilar structure
Ans. (c)
8. Analogous organs have a
(a) common embryonic origin but perform different functions
(b) different embryonic origin and perform different functions
(c) common embryonic origin and perform similar functions
(d) different embryonic origin but perform similar functions
Ans. (d)
9. Which of the following tissue has matrix, which is the source of its structural and functional performances?
(a) Connective tissue
(b) Muscular tissue
(c) Nervous tissue
(d) Epithelial tissue
Ans. (a)
10. Which of the following is an example of analogy?
(a) Limb of horse and man
(b) Wings of pigeon of bat
(c) Wings of bird and butterfly
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
11. Ground substances and fibers in the connective tissue are the secretory products of
(a) Mast cells
(b) Reticular cells
(c) Plasma cells
(d) Fibroblasts
Ans. (d)
12. Which of the following is a vestigial organ in the human body?
(a) Eyelid
(b) Eyelash
(c) Liver
(d) Appendix
Ans. (d)
13. The camel’s hump is composed of a tissue that provides water when oxidized
(a) Skeletal
(b) Areolar
(c) Muscular
(d) Adipose
Ans. (d)
14. The essence of Haeckel’s Recapitulation theory is:
(a) inheritance of acquired characters
(b) alternation of generations
(c) ontogeny repeats phylogeny
(d) prodigality of reproduction
Ans. (c)
15. The white fibrous tissue occurs in
(a) Ligaments
(b) Cartilage
(c) Tendons
(d) Bone
Ans. (c)
16. Biogenetic law was propounded by
(a) Von Baer and Haeckel
(b) Von Bier and Aristotle
(c) Haeckel and Mendel
(d) Mendel and Griffith
Ans. (a)
17. Which animal has become extinct recently?
(a) Draco
(b) Dinosaur
(c) Pteridosperms
(d) Mammoth
Ans. (d)
18. Lamarck belongs to
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Sweden
(d) Austria
Ans. (b)
19. Grafting is not possible in monocots because they
(a) Have scattered vascular bundles
(b) Have parallel venation
(c) Are herbaceous
(d) Lack cambium
Ans. (d)
20. Ligaments are made up of
(a) White fibers and some yellow elastic fibers
(b) White fibers only
(c) Yellow fibers only
(d) Yellow fibers and muscle fibers
Ans. (a)
21. A tissue is a
(a) A group of separate organs that are co ordinate in their activities
(b) Group of similar cells tat function together in a specialized activity
(c) Layer of cells surrounding an organ
(d) Sheet of cells, one layer thick
Ans. (b)
22. The major constituent of vertebrate bone is
(a) Calcium phosphate
(b) Potassium hydroxide
(c) Sodium chloride
(d) Calcium carbonate
Ans. (a)
23. Which type of tissue forms the inner lining of a blood vessel?
(a) Epithelial
(b) Connective
(c) Muscle
(d) Nervous
Ans. (a)
24. A bone left in dilute HCI for about three days will
(a) Crack into pieces
(b) Become soft and elastic
(c) Dissolve completely
(d) Remain as it is
Ans. (b)
25. Epithelial tissue with thin flat cells appearing like packed tiles occur on
(a) Inner lining of stomach
(b) Inner lining of fallopian tube
(c) Inner lining of cheek
(d) Outer surface of ovary
Ans. (c)
Monday, August 29, 2011
General Science School Exam Questions
General Science School Exam Questions
School Exam Practice General Science Questions
What do the following abbreviations stand for?
1. B. C. G......
Answer. Bacillus Calmetee Guerin (Anti-Tuberculosis Vaccine)
2.. D. D. T......
Answer. Dichloro-Diphenyl Trichloro ethane (Disinfectant)
3. E. R. D. A ......
Answer. Energy Research & Development Administration
4. B. A. R. C _.....
Answer. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
5. I. R. B M......
Answer. Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile
6. A disease caused by entamoeba.
Answer. Dysentery
7. A science related with the improvement of
human race.
Answer. Eugenics
8. Poisonous substances which are produced
By pathogens in the host.
Answer. Toxins
9. A disaccharides present in the milk;
Answer. Lactose
10. Name two common communicable diseases.
Answer. Small Pox & Tuberculosis
Write Yes or No as answer
11. Charles Darwin propounded cell theory.
Answer. No
12. Deciduous trees are the trees which shed
their leaves in a certain season.
Answer. Yes
13. Soil-erosion cannot be controlled by cons-
Ervation techniques.
Answer. No
14. Dwarf Mexican varieties of wheat are low
yielding once.
Answer. No
15. Horticulture deals with garden crops
Answer. Yes
School Exam Practice General Science Questions
What do the following abbreviations stand for?
1. B. C. G......
Answer. Bacillus Calmetee Guerin (Anti-Tuberculosis Vaccine)
2.. D. D. T......
Answer. Dichloro-Diphenyl Trichloro ethane (Disinfectant)
3. E. R. D. A ......
Answer. Energy Research & Development Administration
4. B. A. R. C _.....
Answer. Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
5. I. R. B M......
Answer. Intermediate Range Ballistic Missile
6. A disease caused by entamoeba.
Answer. Dysentery
7. A science related with the improvement of
human race.
Answer. Eugenics
8. Poisonous substances which are produced
By pathogens in the host.
Answer. Toxins
9. A disaccharides present in the milk;
Answer. Lactose
10. Name two common communicable diseases.
Answer. Small Pox & Tuberculosis
Write Yes or No as answer
11. Charles Darwin propounded cell theory.
Answer. No
12. Deciduous trees are the trees which shed
their leaves in a certain season.
Answer. Yes
13. Soil-erosion cannot be controlled by cons-
Ervation techniques.
Answer. No
14. Dwarf Mexican varieties of wheat are low
yielding once.
Answer. No
15. Horticulture deals with garden crops
Answer. Yes
Saturday, August 27, 2011
Computer GK Computer Awareness objective Questions for Exams
Computer GK Computer Awareness objective Questions for Exams
Computer Science Quiz Questions With Answers MCQ Test
1.Blinking point which shows your position in the text is called
(a) Cursor
(b) Blinker
(c) Position
(d) None of these
Ans : a
2.For creating a document, you use which command at File menu?
(a) New
(b) Open
(c) Document
(d) None of these
Ans : a
3.You can select the text by
(a) Keyboard
(b) Mouse
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these
Ans : c
4.You can change the size of the text from
(a) formatting bar
(b) font dialog box
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these
Ans : c
5. Colour of the text can be changed
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Not applicable
(d) None of these
Ans : a
6. You can change the line and para spacing from this dialog box
(a) font
(b) open
(c) save
(d) None of these
Ans : d
7.When you put on the computer in the morning, it is called
(a) hot boot
(b) cold boot
(c) warm boot
(d) None of these
Ans : b
8.Computers components are cooled by
(a) power supply
(b) mother board
(c) monitor
(d) fan
Ans : a
9.RAM consists of binary numbers 1’s and
(a) 0s
(b) 2s
(c) 3s
(d) 4s
Ans : a
10.The number of keys in a keyboard is
(a)57
(b)68
(c)180
(d)None of these
Ans : c
11.Mouse is a device which
(a) input
(b) output
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Ans : a
12.With digital camera, you can store
(a) text
(b) pictures
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Ans : c
13.Cards for card reader were made from
(a) plastic
(b) paper
(c) rubber
(d) metal
Ans : b
14.Hard disk is
(a) removable
(b) fixed
(c) Both ‘a’ and b
(d) None of these
15.Zip drive is used for
(a) backup data
(b) processing
(c) updating
(d) None of these
Ans : a
16. Who is known as the first programmer?
(a) Lady Lovelace
(b) Charles Babbage
(c) Herman Hollerith
(d) Blaise Pascal
Ans : a
17. Which are the main types of softwares— system, utility and
(a) application
(b) new
(c) computer
(d) complex
Ans : a
18.Compression tools compress data on
(a) hard drive
(b) floppy drive
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these
Ans : c
19 …………are the raw facts from which……….. is derived.
(a) Data, information
(b) Data, output
(c) Input, information
(d) Output, input
Ans : a
20. Printed copy is often called
(a) soft copy
(b) blank copy
(c) hard copy
(d) write copy
Ans : c
Computer Science Quiz Questions With Answers MCQ Test
1.Blinking point which shows your position in the text is called
(a) Cursor
(b) Blinker
(c) Position
(d) None of these
Ans : a
2.For creating a document, you use which command at File menu?
(a) New
(b) Open
(c) Document
(d) None of these
Ans : a
3.You can select the text by
(a) Keyboard
(b) Mouse
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these
Ans : c
4.You can change the size of the text from
(a) formatting bar
(b) font dialog box
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these
Ans : c
5. Colour of the text can be changed
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) Not applicable
(d) None of these
Ans : a
6. You can change the line and para spacing from this dialog box
(a) font
(b) open
(c) save
(d) None of these
Ans : d
7.When you put on the computer in the morning, it is called
(a) hot boot
(b) cold boot
(c) warm boot
(d) None of these
Ans : b
8.Computers components are cooled by
(a) power supply
(b) mother board
(c) monitor
(d) fan
Ans : a
9.RAM consists of binary numbers 1’s and
(a) 0s
(b) 2s
(c) 3s
(d) 4s
Ans : a
10.The number of keys in a keyboard is
(a)57
(b)68
(c)180
(d)None of these
Ans : c
11.Mouse is a device which
(a) input
(b) output
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Ans : a
12.With digital camera, you can store
(a) text
(b) pictures
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these
Ans : c
13.Cards for card reader were made from
(a) plastic
(b) paper
(c) rubber
(d) metal
Ans : b
14.Hard disk is
(a) removable
(b) fixed
(c) Both ‘a’ and b
(d) None of these
15.Zip drive is used for
(a) backup data
(b) processing
(c) updating
(d) None of these
Ans : a
16. Who is known as the first programmer?
(a) Lady Lovelace
(b) Charles Babbage
(c) Herman Hollerith
(d) Blaise Pascal
Ans : a
17. Which are the main types of softwares— system, utility and
(a) application
(b) new
(c) computer
(d) complex
Ans : a
18.Compression tools compress data on
(a) hard drive
(b) floppy drive
(c) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’
(d) None of these
Ans : c
19 …………are the raw facts from which……….. is derived.
(a) Data, information
(b) Data, output
(c) Input, information
(d) Output, input
Ans : a
20. Printed copy is often called
(a) soft copy
(b) blank copy
(c) hard copy
(d) write copy
Ans : c
Friday, August 26, 2011
Objective Test GK General Science For Exams
Objective Test GK General Science For Exams
General Science Quiz - Multiple Choice Questions with Answers
1. Ethylene oxide on hydrolysis yield-
(a) Ethyl alcohol
(b) Ethylene glycol
(c) Ethanol
(d) Acetone
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
2. Wood spirit is-
(a) Methyl alcohol
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Butyl alcohol
(d) Propyl alcohol
(e) Isopropyl alcohol
Answer. (a)
3. D N A consists of units called-
(a) Glucosides
(b) Deoxyribose
(c) Nucleotides
(d) Peptides
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
4. Thrombosis is a disease of the-
(a) Thyroid gland
(b) Lungs
(c) Nurve bursting
(d) Brain
(e) Blood
Answer. (e)
5. Stomata are bound by a pair of guard cells.
Stomata close when guard cells become-
(a)Turgid
(b) Flacid
(c) Half turgid
(d) Half Flacid
(e) Small
Answer. (b)
6. Which is collip’s hormone?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Parathormone
(c) Insulin
(d) Esterogen
(e) Glucagon V
Answer. (b)
7. An antiviral protein which might help in
Curing viral diseases in future is-
(a) Antibody
(b) Histone
(c) Nucleoprotein
(d) Interferon
(e) Antigen
Answer. (d)
8. Which of the following phenomena normally
Leads to coronary heart disease-
(a) Blood pressure
(b) Anemia
(c) Arteriosclerosis
(d) Indigestion
(e) Worry
Answer. (c)
9. Red-green colour blindness in man is
Known as-
(a) Protanopia
(b) Deuteranopia
(c) Both a & b
(d) Marfan’s syndrome
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
10 Genetics is the study of the-
(a) Mutations
(b) Cell division
(c) Reproduction
(d) Mechanism of inheritance
(e) Growth and differentiation in living organism
Answer. (d)
11 ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated every year on-
(a) 15 January
(b) 26 August
(c) 5 June
(d) 10 July
(e) 20 July
Answer. (c)
12Which of the following disease is not
Water borne disease?
(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Asthama
(d) Amoebic dysentery
(e) Tularemia
Answer. (c)
13 The viruses’ lack-
(a) Proteins
(b) Enzymes
(c) Nucleic acids
(d) Tentacles
(e) All of these
Answer. (b)
14. Commercial source of streptomycin is-
(a) Streptomyces venezuellae
(b) Streptomyces griseus
(c) Streptomyces scoleus
(d) Streptomyces aureus
(e) All of these
Answer. (b)
15. Centripetal xylem is the characteristic of-
(a) Roots
(b) Stems
(c) Leaves
(d) Petioles
(e) inflorescence
Answer. (a)
16. The human blood has a specific gravity of-
(a) 1.055
(b) 1.235
(c) 2.o15
(d) 2.00
(e) 2.45
Answer. (a)
17. The name of the disease called Lock-jaw is-
(a) Hypetropia
(b) Epilepsy
(c) Apoplexy
(d) Tetanus
(e) Arthritis
Answer. (d)
18. It is not advisable to sleep under a tree at
Night because-
(a) It is cold over there
(b) The leaves produce a sticky substance
(c) The tree gives out CO2 at night
(d) Oxygen is produced by the air
(e) Supernatural beings inhabit the trees at
Night
Answer. (c)
19. Ionizing radiations are used in-
(a) Sterilization
(b)Preservation of food stuffs
(c) Inducing artificially mutation
(d) All the above
(e) None of the above
Answer. (d)
20. Mention the science dealing with fossil
Plants-
(a) Palaeobotany
(b) Geology
(c) Epistemology
(d) Entomology
(e) Histology
Answer. (a)
21. Which one of the following is an indicator of
Air pollution?
(a) Lichens
(b) Cycas
(c) Algae
(d) Bryophytes
(e) Pteridophytes
Answer. (a)
22. The organism that lives at the cost of
Another living organism is called-
(a) Aphrodite
(b) Saprophyte
(c) Graminivor
(d) Parasite
(e) Epiphyte
Answer. (d)
23= The poisonous substance produced by
Bacteria is known as-
(a) Toxin
(b) Caffein
(c) Antibodies
(d) Auxin
(e) Antitoxin
Answer : (a)
24. Plants can be made disease resistant by-
(a) Treating with colchicine
(b) Inducing mutations
(c) Breading with their wild relatives
(d) Treating with fungicides
(e) Treating with 2-4D
Answer. (c)
25. One of the following is the rich source of
Natural litmus-
(a) Red algae
(b) Lichens
(c) Rocella
(d) Agaricus
(e) Sargassum
Answer. (c)
General Science Quiz - Multiple Choice Questions with Answers
1. Ethylene oxide on hydrolysis yield-
(a) Ethyl alcohol
(b) Ethylene glycol
(c) Ethanol
(d) Acetone
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
2. Wood spirit is-
(a) Methyl alcohol
(b) Ethyl alcohol
(c) Butyl alcohol
(d) Propyl alcohol
(e) Isopropyl alcohol
Answer. (a)
3. D N A consists of units called-
(a) Glucosides
(b) Deoxyribose
(c) Nucleotides
(d) Peptides
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
4. Thrombosis is a disease of the-
(a) Thyroid gland
(b) Lungs
(c) Nurve bursting
(d) Brain
(e) Blood
Answer. (e)
5. Stomata are bound by a pair of guard cells.
Stomata close when guard cells become-
(a)Turgid
(b) Flacid
(c) Half turgid
(d) Half Flacid
(e) Small
Answer. (b)
6. Which is collip’s hormone?
(a) Thyroxine
(b) Parathormone
(c) Insulin
(d) Esterogen
(e) Glucagon V
Answer. (b)
7. An antiviral protein which might help in
Curing viral diseases in future is-
(a) Antibody
(b) Histone
(c) Nucleoprotein
(d) Interferon
(e) Antigen
Answer. (d)
8. Which of the following phenomena normally
Leads to coronary heart disease-
(a) Blood pressure
(b) Anemia
(c) Arteriosclerosis
(d) Indigestion
(e) Worry
Answer. (c)
9. Red-green colour blindness in man is
Known as-
(a) Protanopia
(b) Deuteranopia
(c) Both a & b
(d) Marfan’s syndrome
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
10 Genetics is the study of the-
(a) Mutations
(b) Cell division
(c) Reproduction
(d) Mechanism of inheritance
(e) Growth and differentiation in living organism
Answer. (d)
11 ‘World Environment Day’ is celebrated every year on-
(a) 15 January
(b) 26 August
(c) 5 June
(d) 10 July
(e) 20 July
Answer. (c)
12Which of the following disease is not
Water borne disease?
(a) Cholera
(b) Typhoid
(c) Asthama
(d) Amoebic dysentery
(e) Tularemia
Answer. (c)
13 The viruses’ lack-
(a) Proteins
(b) Enzymes
(c) Nucleic acids
(d) Tentacles
(e) All of these
Answer. (b)
14. Commercial source of streptomycin is-
(a) Streptomyces venezuellae
(b) Streptomyces griseus
(c) Streptomyces scoleus
(d) Streptomyces aureus
(e) All of these
Answer. (b)
15. Centripetal xylem is the characteristic of-
(a) Roots
(b) Stems
(c) Leaves
(d) Petioles
(e) inflorescence
Answer. (a)
16. The human blood has a specific gravity of-
(a) 1.055
(b) 1.235
(c) 2.o15
(d) 2.00
(e) 2.45
Answer. (a)
17. The name of the disease called Lock-jaw is-
(a) Hypetropia
(b) Epilepsy
(c) Apoplexy
(d) Tetanus
(e) Arthritis
Answer. (d)
18. It is not advisable to sleep under a tree at
Night because-
(a) It is cold over there
(b) The leaves produce a sticky substance
(c) The tree gives out CO2 at night
(d) Oxygen is produced by the air
(e) Supernatural beings inhabit the trees at
Night
Answer. (c)
19. Ionizing radiations are used in-
(a) Sterilization
(b)Preservation of food stuffs
(c) Inducing artificially mutation
(d) All the above
(e) None of the above
Answer. (d)
20. Mention the science dealing with fossil
Plants-
(a) Palaeobotany
(b) Geology
(c) Epistemology
(d) Entomology
(e) Histology
Answer. (a)
21. Which one of the following is an indicator of
Air pollution?
(a) Lichens
(b) Cycas
(c) Algae
(d) Bryophytes
(e) Pteridophytes
Answer. (a)
22. The organism that lives at the cost of
Another living organism is called-
(a) Aphrodite
(b) Saprophyte
(c) Graminivor
(d) Parasite
(e) Epiphyte
Answer. (d)
23= The poisonous substance produced by
Bacteria is known as-
(a) Toxin
(b) Caffein
(c) Antibodies
(d) Auxin
(e) Antitoxin
Answer : (a)
24. Plants can be made disease resistant by-
(a) Treating with colchicine
(b) Inducing mutations
(c) Breading with their wild relatives
(d) Treating with fungicides
(e) Treating with 2-4D
Answer. (c)
25. One of the following is the rich source of
Natural litmus-
(a) Red algae
(b) Lichens
(c) Rocella
(d) Agaricus
(e) Sargassum
Answer. (c)
General Science Objective MCQ Practice test For Exams
General Science Objective MCQ Practice test For Exams
GENERAL SCIENCE 25 MCQs For Exams like KVS UPSC NDA RRB and PSC
1. The substance which has recently received
Greater attention in investigations concerning
Diseases of the heart and blood vessels
Is-
(a) Protein
(b) Fats
(c) Glycerol
(d) Cholesterol
(e) Amino acids
Answer. (d)
2. Pneumonia is caused by-
(a) Virus
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(d) Algae
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
3. The red colour of red sea is because of-
(a) Red algae
(b) Cephaleuros
(c) Brown algae
(d) Trichodesmium erythrium
(e) None of the above
Answer. (d)
4. Which one of the following is commonly
called ‘Edible sponge mushroom’?
(a) Sargassum
(b) Morchella
(c) Agaricus
(d) Polyporus
(e) None of these
Answer. (b)
5. The most important part of a green plant is-
(a) Stalk
(b) Leaf
(c) Root
(d) Flower
(e) None of these
Answer. (b)
6- The movement of water molecular from
One cell to another depends on-
(a) Osmotic concentration
(b) Turgor pressure
(c) Wall pressure
(d) Plasma pressure
(e) Diffusion pressure deficit
Answer. (a)
7. Which one of the following gases is
Considered as atmospheric pollutant?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Ozone
(c) S02
(d) Nitrogen
(e) Argon
Answer. (c)
8. Gaseous exchange between old corky
Stem and internal, tissue takes place
Through-
(a) Xylem
(b) Phloem
(c) Lenticels
(d) Stomata
(e) Leaves
Answer. (c)
9. The branch of the science dealing with the
Study of human skin is called-
(a) Physiology
(b) Pathology
(c) Anatomy
(d) Biochemistry
(e) Dermatology
Answer. (e)
10. Teratology is the branch of biology which
Deals with the study of-
(a) Extra-embryonic membrane
(b) Post-embryonic development
(c) Abnormal development after birth or Hatching
(d) Haemopoisis
(e) Abnormal development during embryo Genesis
Answer. (e)
11. Which of the following can be used for Biological control of mosquitoes?
(a) Oil
(b) Ointments
(c) D. D. T.
(d) Gambusia
(e) Gamaxene
Answer. (d)
12. The total number of muscles in the human
Body is-
(a) 525
(b) 639
(c) 373
(d) 457
(e) 734
Answer. (b)
13 The function of the tapetum in the anther Is-
(a) Protective
(b) Productive
(c) Nutritive
(d) Decorative
(e) Conduction
Answer. (c)
14 The language of Honey-bees was decoded By-
(a) Carolus Linnaeus
(b) William Harvey
(C) Karl von Frisch
(d) Charles Darwin
(e) Mendel
Answer. (c)
15 What is the name of the longest bone of Thigh?
(a) Vistula
(b) Femur
(c) Fibula
(d) Humerus
(e) Tibia
Answer. (b)
16. Deficiency of Vitamin ‘C’ causes-
(a) Rheumatism a
(b) Kidney malfunction
(c) Scurvy
(d) Respiratory disease
(e) Night blindness
Answer. (c)
219. Diseases transmitted by the head louse is-
(a) Plague
(b) Rabies
(c) Scurvy
(d) Typhoid
(e) Cholera
Answer. (d)
17. The main function of white blood corpuscles
In the body is-
(a) To carry food
(b) To help in the formation of clot
(c) To carry oxygen
(d) To protect the body against diseases
(e) To help extricate waste products
Answer. (d)
18. Blood Plasma is composed chiefly of-
(a) Water
(b) The hormone component
(c) The antibody component
(d) Haemoglobin
(e) Lymph
Answer. (a)
19. Haemoglobin is a pigment present in-
(a) The plasma
(b) Red blood cells
(c) White blood cells
(d) Spleen
(e) Hepatic cells
Answer. (b)
20. Which of the following processes liberates
Energy?
(a) Osmosis
(b) Symbiosis
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Respiration
(e) Digestion
Answer. (d)
21. Diabetes can be controlled by the injection
Of-
(a) Penicillin
(b) Thyrosin
(c) Terramycin
(d) Auromycin
(e) Insulin
Answer. (e)
22. Which one of the following cartilage helps in
the easy birth of young ones without damage
To pelvic girdle?
(a) Fibrous Cartilage
(b) Hyaline Cartilage
(c) Elastic Cartilage
(d) Non-elastic Cartilage
(e) None of the above
Answer. (a)
23. The ‘Universal Recipient’ Belongs to blood
Group-
(a) O
(b) A
(C) B
(d) AB
(e) None of these
Answer. (d)
24. Antibiotics are-
(a) Anaesthetic substances
(b) Sleeping pills
(c) Special medicines used during surgical
Operations
(d) Drugs prepared from moulds and mould
Like organisms
(e) Medicines against contamination of
Wounds
Answer. (d)
25. Xerophytes are-
(a) Plant tissues which carry out transportation
Of water minerals and food from one part to
Another
(b) The plants adapted to grow in dry habitats
(c) The male reproductive parts of the flower
(d) Organisms living on dead organic matter
(e) None of these
Answer. (b)
GENERAL SCIENCE 25 MCQs For Exams like KVS UPSC NDA RRB and PSC
1. The substance which has recently received
Greater attention in investigations concerning
Diseases of the heart and blood vessels
Is-
(a) Protein
(b) Fats
(c) Glycerol
(d) Cholesterol
(e) Amino acids
Answer. (d)
2. Pneumonia is caused by-
(a) Virus
(b) Fungi
(c) Bacteria
(d) Algae
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
3. The red colour of red sea is because of-
(a) Red algae
(b) Cephaleuros
(c) Brown algae
(d) Trichodesmium erythrium
(e) None of the above
Answer. (d)
4. Which one of the following is commonly
called ‘Edible sponge mushroom’?
(a) Sargassum
(b) Morchella
(c) Agaricus
(d) Polyporus
(e) None of these
Answer. (b)
5. The most important part of a green plant is-
(a) Stalk
(b) Leaf
(c) Root
(d) Flower
(e) None of these
Answer. (b)
6- The movement of water molecular from
One cell to another depends on-
(a) Osmotic concentration
(b) Turgor pressure
(c) Wall pressure
(d) Plasma pressure
(e) Diffusion pressure deficit
Answer. (a)
7. Which one of the following gases is
Considered as atmospheric pollutant?
(a) Oxygen
(b) Ozone
(c) S02
(d) Nitrogen
(e) Argon
Answer. (c)
8. Gaseous exchange between old corky
Stem and internal, tissue takes place
Through-
(a) Xylem
(b) Phloem
(c) Lenticels
(d) Stomata
(e) Leaves
Answer. (c)
9. The branch of the science dealing with the
Study of human skin is called-
(a) Physiology
(b) Pathology
(c) Anatomy
(d) Biochemistry
(e) Dermatology
Answer. (e)
10. Teratology is the branch of biology which
Deals with the study of-
(a) Extra-embryonic membrane
(b) Post-embryonic development
(c) Abnormal development after birth or Hatching
(d) Haemopoisis
(e) Abnormal development during embryo Genesis
Answer. (e)
11. Which of the following can be used for Biological control of mosquitoes?
(a) Oil
(b) Ointments
(c) D. D. T.
(d) Gambusia
(e) Gamaxene
Answer. (d)
12. The total number of muscles in the human
Body is-
(a) 525
(b) 639
(c) 373
(d) 457
(e) 734
Answer. (b)
13 The function of the tapetum in the anther Is-
(a) Protective
(b) Productive
(c) Nutritive
(d) Decorative
(e) Conduction
Answer. (c)
14 The language of Honey-bees was decoded By-
(a) Carolus Linnaeus
(b) William Harvey
(C) Karl von Frisch
(d) Charles Darwin
(e) Mendel
Answer. (c)
15 What is the name of the longest bone of Thigh?
(a) Vistula
(b) Femur
(c) Fibula
(d) Humerus
(e) Tibia
Answer. (b)
16. Deficiency of Vitamin ‘C’ causes-
(a) Rheumatism a
(b) Kidney malfunction
(c) Scurvy
(d) Respiratory disease
(e) Night blindness
Answer. (c)
219. Diseases transmitted by the head louse is-
(a) Plague
(b) Rabies
(c) Scurvy
(d) Typhoid
(e) Cholera
Answer. (d)
17. The main function of white blood corpuscles
In the body is-
(a) To carry food
(b) To help in the formation of clot
(c) To carry oxygen
(d) To protect the body against diseases
(e) To help extricate waste products
Answer. (d)
18. Blood Plasma is composed chiefly of-
(a) Water
(b) The hormone component
(c) The antibody component
(d) Haemoglobin
(e) Lymph
Answer. (a)
19. Haemoglobin is a pigment present in-
(a) The plasma
(b) Red blood cells
(c) White blood cells
(d) Spleen
(e) Hepatic cells
Answer. (b)
20. Which of the following processes liberates
Energy?
(a) Osmosis
(b) Symbiosis
(c) Photosynthesis
(d) Respiration
(e) Digestion
Answer. (d)
21. Diabetes can be controlled by the injection
Of-
(a) Penicillin
(b) Thyrosin
(c) Terramycin
(d) Auromycin
(e) Insulin
Answer. (e)
22. Which one of the following cartilage helps in
the easy birth of young ones without damage
To pelvic girdle?
(a) Fibrous Cartilage
(b) Hyaline Cartilage
(c) Elastic Cartilage
(d) Non-elastic Cartilage
(e) None of the above
Answer. (a)
23. The ‘Universal Recipient’ Belongs to blood
Group-
(a) O
(b) A
(C) B
(d) AB
(e) None of these
Answer. (d)
24. Antibiotics are-
(a) Anaesthetic substances
(b) Sleeping pills
(c) Special medicines used during surgical
Operations
(d) Drugs prepared from moulds and mould
Like organisms
(e) Medicines against contamination of
Wounds
Answer. (d)
25. Xerophytes are-
(a) Plant tissues which carry out transportation
Of water minerals and food from one part to
Another
(b) The plants adapted to grow in dry habitats
(c) The male reproductive parts of the flower
(d) Organisms living on dead organic matter
(e) None of these
Answer. (b)
Wednesday, August 24, 2011
Free Exam Questions practice Test World history
Free Exam Questions practice Test World history
Test in World History containing objective Questions as MCQ test
1. The first battle of the American War of Independence took place in the year
(a) 1776, 4 July
(b) 1778, 14 August
(c) 1776, 28 July
(d) 1789, 14 July
Ans. (a)
2. The main effect of the American War of Independence was
(a) establishment of a republic
(b) democracy
(c) socialism
(d) capitalism
Ans. (a)
3. The French society was divided into
(a) one group
(b) two groups
(c)Three groups
(d) four groups
Ans. (c)
4. The French Queen, Marie Antonitte, was termed as
(a) empty headed
(b) hot headed
(c) high headed
(d) dumb headed
Ans. (a)
5. The church was very corrupt and supported
(a) the monarchy
(b) socialism
(c) revolutionaries
(d) kingship
Ans. (a)
6. Louis XVI and Marie Antonitte were executed alongwith their children in
(a) l793
(b) 1794
(c) 1795
(d) 1799
Ans. (a)
7. Austria, Russia and Prussia formed an alliance called
(a) the revolutionary alliance
(b) triple alliance
(c) holy alliance
(d) triple entente
Ans. (c)
8. Bismarck was called the man who gave Germany the policy of
(a) blood & iron
(b) holy wars
(c) holy alliance
(d) triple alliance
Ans. (a)
9. Prussia was the strongest state of Germany before the unification was dominated by
the
(a) monarchs
(b) landlords (Junkers)
(c) lords
(d) industrialists
Ans. (b)
10. The great French socialist Babeuf was executed in the year
(a) 1797
(b) 1798
(c) 1799
(d) 1796
Ans. (a)
11. The communist manifesto appeared in the year
(a) 1849
(b) 1848
(c) 1850
(d) 1852
Ans. (b)
12. The first international introduced
(a) socialism
(b) communalism
(c) democracy
(d) dictatorship
Ans. (a)
13. The Paris Commune fought for
(a) workers rights
(b) landlords rights
(c) industrialists rights
(d) people rights
Ans. (a)
14. In the year 1914 the membership of the German socialist party was
(a) 3 million
(b) 2 million
(c) 1 million
(d) 4 million
Ans. (c)
15. The Second International fought against
(a) wars
(b) imperalism
(c) colonialism
(d) exploitation
Ans. (a)
16. The Second International suffered a fatal below in
(a) 1864
(b) 1872
(c) 1874
(d) 1889
Ans. (a)
17. Simon Bolivar was a great leader of the
(a) French Revolution
(b) American War of Independence
(c) Latin American Revolution
(d) Central American Revolution
Ans. (c)
18. The French Revolution gave a new meaning to
(a) republic
(b) capitalism
(c) nation
(d) sovereignty
Ans. (a)
19. The French King Louis XVI ruled according to
(a) socialistic ideas
(b) divine right theory
(c) orthodox method
(d) oligarchy rules
Ans. (b)
20. 18th century has been correctly called the
(a) age of rationalism
(b) age of reason
(c) age of positive thinking
(d) age of experimentation
Ans. (b)
21. The French royal prison—the (Bastille) was attacked in
(a) 12 July, 1789
(b) 13 July, 1789
(c) 14 July, 1789
(d) 16 July, 1790
Ans. (c)
22. The most important effect of the French Revolution was the birth of the
(a) republic in France
(b) socialism
(c) democracy
(d) capitalism
Ans. (a)
23. Napoleon introduced a new set of laws called
(a) Napoleonic code
(b) French laws
(c) Europeon laws
(d) Prussian laws
Ans. (a)
24. Sardinia was the strongest state of
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) Italy
(d) Holland
Ans. (c)
25. Italy was unified with the occupation of the city of Rome in
(a) 1868
(b) 1869
(c) 1870
(d) 1872
Ans. (c)
Test in World History containing objective Questions as MCQ test
1. The first battle of the American War of Independence took place in the year
(a) 1776, 4 July
(b) 1778, 14 August
(c) 1776, 28 July
(d) 1789, 14 July
Ans. (a)
2. The main effect of the American War of Independence was
(a) establishment of a republic
(b) democracy
(c) socialism
(d) capitalism
Ans. (a)
3. The French society was divided into
(a) one group
(b) two groups
(c)Three groups
(d) four groups
Ans. (c)
4. The French Queen, Marie Antonitte, was termed as
(a) empty headed
(b) hot headed
(c) high headed
(d) dumb headed
Ans. (a)
5. The church was very corrupt and supported
(a) the monarchy
(b) socialism
(c) revolutionaries
(d) kingship
Ans. (a)
6. Louis XVI and Marie Antonitte were executed alongwith their children in
(a) l793
(b) 1794
(c) 1795
(d) 1799
Ans. (a)
7. Austria, Russia and Prussia formed an alliance called
(a) the revolutionary alliance
(b) triple alliance
(c) holy alliance
(d) triple entente
Ans. (c)
8. Bismarck was called the man who gave Germany the policy of
(a) blood & iron
(b) holy wars
(c) holy alliance
(d) triple alliance
Ans. (a)
9. Prussia was the strongest state of Germany before the unification was dominated by
the
(a) monarchs
(b) landlords (Junkers)
(c) lords
(d) industrialists
Ans. (b)
10. The great French socialist Babeuf was executed in the year
(a) 1797
(b) 1798
(c) 1799
(d) 1796
Ans. (a)
11. The communist manifesto appeared in the year
(a) 1849
(b) 1848
(c) 1850
(d) 1852
Ans. (b)
12. The first international introduced
(a) socialism
(b) communalism
(c) democracy
(d) dictatorship
Ans. (a)
13. The Paris Commune fought for
(a) workers rights
(b) landlords rights
(c) industrialists rights
(d) people rights
Ans. (a)
14. In the year 1914 the membership of the German socialist party was
(a) 3 million
(b) 2 million
(c) 1 million
(d) 4 million
Ans. (c)
15. The Second International fought against
(a) wars
(b) imperalism
(c) colonialism
(d) exploitation
Ans. (a)
16. The Second International suffered a fatal below in
(a) 1864
(b) 1872
(c) 1874
(d) 1889
Ans. (a)
17. Simon Bolivar was a great leader of the
(a) French Revolution
(b) American War of Independence
(c) Latin American Revolution
(d) Central American Revolution
Ans. (c)
18. The French Revolution gave a new meaning to
(a) republic
(b) capitalism
(c) nation
(d) sovereignty
Ans. (a)
19. The French King Louis XVI ruled according to
(a) socialistic ideas
(b) divine right theory
(c) orthodox method
(d) oligarchy rules
Ans. (b)
20. 18th century has been correctly called the
(a) age of rationalism
(b) age of reason
(c) age of positive thinking
(d) age of experimentation
Ans. (b)
21. The French royal prison—the (Bastille) was attacked in
(a) 12 July, 1789
(b) 13 July, 1789
(c) 14 July, 1789
(d) 16 July, 1790
Ans. (c)
22. The most important effect of the French Revolution was the birth of the
(a) republic in France
(b) socialism
(c) democracy
(d) capitalism
Ans. (a)
23. Napoleon introduced a new set of laws called
(a) Napoleonic code
(b) French laws
(c) Europeon laws
(d) Prussian laws
Ans. (a)
24. Sardinia was the strongest state of
(a) Germany
(b) France
(c) Italy
(d) Holland
Ans. (c)
25. Italy was unified with the occupation of the city of Rome in
(a) 1868
(b) 1869
(c) 1870
(d) 1872
Ans. (c)
free Online GK Questions on pollution
free Online GK Questions on pollution
Free Online General Knowledge Quiz
Questions with Answers for Competitive Exams
1. Pollutant from motorcar exhaust that causes mental diseases is
(a) lead
(b) NO2
(c) SO2
(d) Hg
Ans. (a)
2. Lichens are important in the studies on atmospheric pollution because they
(a) can also grow in greatly polluted atmosphere
(b) can readily multiply in polluted atmosphere
(c) are very sensitive to pollutants like SO2
(d) efficiently purify the atmosphere
Ans. (c)
3. Measurement of 1ate of oxygen utilisation by a unit volume of water over a period of time is to measure
(a) biochemical oxygen demand
(b) biosynthetic pathway
(c) biogas generation
(d) fermentation
Ans. (a)
4. The two great industrial tragedies namely, MIC and Chernobyl tragedies respectively occurred where and at which time?
(a) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1990
(b) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1988
(c) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1986
(d) Bhopal 1986, Russia 1988
Ans. (c)
5. Chlorofluorocarbon releases a chemical harmful to ozone
(a) fluorine
(b) sulphur dioxide
(c) nitrogen peroxide
(d) chlorine
Ans. (d)
6. Noise pollution is measured in
(a) hertz
(b) fathoms
(c) nanometers
(d) decibels
Ans. (d)
7. Major source of methane in India is
(a) rice fields
(b) sugarcane plantation
(c) wheat fields
(d) fruit orchards
Ans. (a)
8. Which pigment protects plants from UV damage?
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Xanthophyll
(c) Phycocyanin
(d) Carotenoids
Ans. (d)
9. Which is not dangerous for life?
(a) Nuclear blast
(b) Deforestation
(c) Biopollutants
(d) Ozone layer
Ans. (d)
10. Pollution indicator plants
(a) are resistant to pollution
(b) can purify the atmosphere
(c) are very sensitive to pollution
(d) are very sensitive to pollutants
Ans. (c)
11. A sewage treatment process in which a portion of the decomposer bacteria present in the waste recycled into the beginning of the process is called
(a) activated sludge treatment
(b) primary treatment
(c) tertiary treatment
(d) cyclic treatment
Ans. (a)
12. Warm ocean surge of Peru current recurring every 5-8 years or so in the East Pacific of South America is widely known as
(a) Gulf stream
(b) Aye Aye
(c) El Nino
(d) Mangox
Ans. (c)
13. Acid rain is caused due to increase in concentration of
(a) SO2 and NO2
(b) CO and CO2
(c) CO and SO3
(d) ozone and dust
Ans. (a)
14. Smog is a combination of
(a) fire and water
(b) smoke and fog
(c) water and smoke
(d) air and water
Ans. (b)
15. Maximum threat to the world is from
(a) global warming
(b) ozone hole
(c) water pollution
(d) soil erosion
Ans. (b)
16. BOD of a pond is related to in per unit volume of water.
(a) all the plants
(b) all the nektons
(c) all the microbes
(d) all the animals
Ans. (c)
17. If fertilisers are added to fresh water
(a) plants will die
(b) overall animal population will increase
(c) eutrophication will occur
(d) fish population will decrease
Ans. (c)
18. The effect of pollution is first and most marked on
(a) natural flora of a place
(b) natural balance of our environment
(c) natural geochemical cycles
(d) all the above three
Ans. (a)
19. Minamata disease is a pollution-related disease, which results from
(a) release of human organic waste into drinking water
(b) accumulation of arsenic into atmosphere
(c) release of industrial waste mercury into fishing water
(d) oil spills into sea
Ans. (c)
20. World environment day is
(a) 5th June
(b) 28th February
(c) 5th August
(d) 28th April
Ans. (a)
Free Online General Knowledge Quiz
Questions with Answers for Competitive Exams
1. Pollutant from motorcar exhaust that causes mental diseases is
(a) lead
(b) NO2
(c) SO2
(d) Hg
Ans. (a)
2. Lichens are important in the studies on atmospheric pollution because they
(a) can also grow in greatly polluted atmosphere
(b) can readily multiply in polluted atmosphere
(c) are very sensitive to pollutants like SO2
(d) efficiently purify the atmosphere
Ans. (c)
3. Measurement of 1ate of oxygen utilisation by a unit volume of water over a period of time is to measure
(a) biochemical oxygen demand
(b) biosynthetic pathway
(c) biogas generation
(d) fermentation
Ans. (a)
4. The two great industrial tragedies namely, MIC and Chernobyl tragedies respectively occurred where and at which time?
(a) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1990
(b) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1988
(c) Bhopal 1984, Ukraine 1986
(d) Bhopal 1986, Russia 1988
Ans. (c)
5. Chlorofluorocarbon releases a chemical harmful to ozone
(a) fluorine
(b) sulphur dioxide
(c) nitrogen peroxide
(d) chlorine
Ans. (d)
6. Noise pollution is measured in
(a) hertz
(b) fathoms
(c) nanometers
(d) decibels
Ans. (d)
7. Major source of methane in India is
(a) rice fields
(b) sugarcane plantation
(c) wheat fields
(d) fruit orchards
Ans. (a)
8. Which pigment protects plants from UV damage?
(a) Chlorophyll
(b) Xanthophyll
(c) Phycocyanin
(d) Carotenoids
Ans. (d)
9. Which is not dangerous for life?
(a) Nuclear blast
(b) Deforestation
(c) Biopollutants
(d) Ozone layer
Ans. (d)
10. Pollution indicator plants
(a) are resistant to pollution
(b) can purify the atmosphere
(c) are very sensitive to pollution
(d) are very sensitive to pollutants
Ans. (c)
11. A sewage treatment process in which a portion of the decomposer bacteria present in the waste recycled into the beginning of the process is called
(a) activated sludge treatment
(b) primary treatment
(c) tertiary treatment
(d) cyclic treatment
Ans. (a)
12. Warm ocean surge of Peru current recurring every 5-8 years or so in the East Pacific of South America is widely known as
(a) Gulf stream
(b) Aye Aye
(c) El Nino
(d) Mangox
Ans. (c)
13. Acid rain is caused due to increase in concentration of
(a) SO2 and NO2
(b) CO and CO2
(c) CO and SO3
(d) ozone and dust
Ans. (a)
14. Smog is a combination of
(a) fire and water
(b) smoke and fog
(c) water and smoke
(d) air and water
Ans. (b)
15. Maximum threat to the world is from
(a) global warming
(b) ozone hole
(c) water pollution
(d) soil erosion
Ans. (b)
16. BOD of a pond is related to in per unit volume of water.
(a) all the plants
(b) all the nektons
(c) all the microbes
(d) all the animals
Ans. (c)
17. If fertilisers are added to fresh water
(a) plants will die
(b) overall animal population will increase
(c) eutrophication will occur
(d) fish population will decrease
Ans. (c)
18. The effect of pollution is first and most marked on
(a) natural flora of a place
(b) natural balance of our environment
(c) natural geochemical cycles
(d) all the above three
Ans. (a)
19. Minamata disease is a pollution-related disease, which results from
(a) release of human organic waste into drinking water
(b) accumulation of arsenic into atmosphere
(c) release of industrial waste mercury into fishing water
(d) oil spills into sea
Ans. (c)
20. World environment day is
(a) 5th June
(b) 28th February
(c) 5th August
(d) 28th April
Ans. (a)
Free online Geometry Objective Test with Answers
Free online Geometry Objective Test with Answers
Geometry objective questions for job Exams like NDA UPSC RRB etc
1. AB and CD are two chords of a circle; when produced they intersect each other at
the point P outside the circle. Then
(a) AB BP = CD DP
(b) AP BP = CP DP
(c) AB AP = CD CP
(d) AP CP = BP DP
Ans. (b)
2. In a circle with centre O, two unequal chords PQ and RS intersect each other at M,
then triangles PMR and QMS are
(a) congruent
(b) equal in area
(c) similar
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
3. Find the approximate value of Angle A in Triangle ABC if 8 A = 9B = 4C(all are angles).
(a) 70°
(b) 74°
(c) 81°
(d) 85
Ans. (d)
4. The diagonals of a parallelogram ABCD intersect at O. If Angle BOC = 90° and BDC =
50°, then AOB is
(a) 10°
(b) 40°
(c) 50°
(d) 90°
Ans. (b)
5. The external bisectors of Angle B and C of Triangle ABC meet in O. If Angle A is equal to 50°, then
the magnitude of Angle BOC is
(a) 140°
(b) 105°
(c) 65°
(d) 60°
Ans. (c)
6. The angles of a pentagon in degrees are y°, ( y + 20°), ( y + 400) – ( y + 60°) and ( y
+ 80°).The smallest angle of the pentagon is
(a) 88°
(b) 78°
(c) 68°
(d) 58°
Ans. (c)
7. In Triangle PQR , Angle P = 50 and the external bisectors of Angle Q and Angle R meet in O, then the measure of Angle QOR is
(a) 65°
(b) 70°
(c) 75°
(d) 80°
Ans. (a)
8. Four triangles are formed by joining the mid points of the three sides of a triangle.
Then
(a) two Triangle’s are congruent
(b) three Triangle’s’s are congruent
(c) all are congruent
(d) none are congruent
Ans. (c)
9. Two circles with centre A and B intersect each other at P and Q. Which one is true?
(a) PQ is the perpendicular bisector of AB
(b) AB is the perpendicular bisector of PQ
(c) APB is a right angled triangle
(d) AB = PQ
Ans. (b)
10. In Triangle ABC, E is the midpoint of median AD, BE is produced to meet AC at F Then
AF : FC is equal to
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 2 : 3
Ans. (b)
11. If in a right angle triangle ABC, P is the midpoint of hypotenuse AC, which one is
true?
(a) PA=AC/2
(b) PB=AC/2
(c) PA=PB
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
12. If the diagonals of a parallelogram are equal, it is a
(a) rectangle
(b) square
(c) trapezium
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
13. Opposite angles of cyclic quadrilateral are
(a) supplementary
(b) complementary
(c) equal
(d) not known
Ans. (a)
14. Any cyclic parallelogram is a
(a) rhombus
(b) square
(c) rectangle
(d) trapezium
Ans. (b)
15. The sum of the exterior angles of a triangle is K right angles. Then K is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. (b)
16. ABCD is a trapezium with AB CD and AB = 2CD. If O is the intersection of the
diagonals, Ar(AOB)/Ar(COD) is in the ratio
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 4 : 1
Ans. (d)
17. P and Q are points on the sides CA and CB, respectively of a right-angled triangle
ABC, right angled at C, then
(a) AP2 + PB2 = AB2
(b) AQ2 + BP2 = AB2 + PQ2
(c) BQ2 + QP2 = BP2
(d) AQ + BP = AB + PQ
Ans. (b)
18. The locus of a point equidistant from a fixed point is a
(a) circle
(b) straight line
(c) parabola
(d) hyperbola
Ans. (a)
19. If the interior angle of a regular polygon exceeds the exterior angle by 132°, then the
number of sides of the polygon is
(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 13
(d) 12
Ans. (d)
20. If two circles touch each other internally then the distance between their centres is
equal to
(a) sum of their radii
(b) difference of their radii
(c) product of their radii
(d) smaller of two radii
Ans. (b)
21. If PQRS is a parallelogram inscribed in a circle, then it is a
(a) rhombus
(b) square
(c) rectang1e
(d) trapezium
Ans. (c)
22. If two circles touch each other externally at the point P and the straight line l touches
the two circles at the points Q and R respectively then Angle QPR is equal to
(a) 45°
(b) 55°
(c) 65°
(d) 90°
Ans. (d)
23. The distance between two parallel chords of lengths 8 cm and 6 cm, in a circle of
diameter 10 cm, if the chords are on the same side of the centre is
(a) 1 cm
(b) 2 cm
(c) 3 cm
(d) 4 cm
Ans. (a)
24. If two parallel chords of length 8 cm and 6 cm in a circle of radius 5 cm are on the
opposite sides of the centre, then the distance between the parallel chords is
(a) 5 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 7 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
25. Two circles touch each other externally. If the distance between their centers is 7 cm
and if the diameter of one circle is 8 cm, then the diameter of the other is
(a) 5 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 7 cm
(d) 8 cm
Ans. (b)
Geometry objective questions for job Exams like NDA UPSC RRB etc
1. AB and CD are two chords of a circle; when produced they intersect each other at
the point P outside the circle. Then
(a) AB BP = CD DP
(b) AP BP = CP DP
(c) AB AP = CD CP
(d) AP CP = BP DP
Ans. (b)
2. In a circle with centre O, two unequal chords PQ and RS intersect each other at M,
then triangles PMR and QMS are
(a) congruent
(b) equal in area
(c) similar
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
3. Find the approximate value of Angle A in Triangle ABC if 8 A = 9B = 4C(all are angles).
(a) 70°
(b) 74°
(c) 81°
(d) 85
Ans. (d)
4. The diagonals of a parallelogram ABCD intersect at O. If Angle BOC = 90° and BDC =
50°, then AOB is
(a) 10°
(b) 40°
(c) 50°
(d) 90°
Ans. (b)
5. The external bisectors of Angle B and C of Triangle ABC meet in O. If Angle A is equal to 50°, then
the magnitude of Angle BOC is
(a) 140°
(b) 105°
(c) 65°
(d) 60°
Ans. (c)
6. The angles of a pentagon in degrees are y°, ( y + 20°), ( y + 400) – ( y + 60°) and ( y
+ 80°).The smallest angle of the pentagon is
(a) 88°
(b) 78°
(c) 68°
(d) 58°
Ans. (c)
7. In Triangle PQR , Angle P = 50 and the external bisectors of Angle Q and Angle R meet in O, then the measure of Angle QOR is
(a) 65°
(b) 70°
(c) 75°
(d) 80°
Ans. (a)
8. Four triangles are formed by joining the mid points of the three sides of a triangle.
Then
(a) two Triangle’s are congruent
(b) three Triangle’s’s are congruent
(c) all are congruent
(d) none are congruent
Ans. (c)
9. Two circles with centre A and B intersect each other at P and Q. Which one is true?
(a) PQ is the perpendicular bisector of AB
(b) AB is the perpendicular bisector of PQ
(c) APB is a right angled triangle
(d) AB = PQ
Ans. (b)
10. In Triangle ABC, E is the midpoint of median AD, BE is produced to meet AC at F Then
AF : FC is equal to
(a) 1 : 1
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 2 : 1
(d) 2 : 3
Ans. (b)
11. If in a right angle triangle ABC, P is the midpoint of hypotenuse AC, which one is
true?
(a) PA=AC/2
(b) PB=AC/2
(c) PA=PB
(d) All of these
Ans. (d)
12. If the diagonals of a parallelogram are equal, it is a
(a) rectangle
(b) square
(c) trapezium
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
13. Opposite angles of cyclic quadrilateral are
(a) supplementary
(b) complementary
(c) equal
(d) not known
Ans. (a)
14. Any cyclic parallelogram is a
(a) rhombus
(b) square
(c) rectangle
(d) trapezium
Ans. (b)
15. The sum of the exterior angles of a triangle is K right angles. Then K is
(a) 3
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1
Ans. (b)
16. ABCD is a trapezium with AB CD and AB = 2CD. If O is the intersection of the
diagonals, Ar(AOB)/Ar(COD) is in the ratio
(a) 2 : 1
(b) 3 : 1
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 4 : 1
Ans. (d)
17. P and Q are points on the sides CA and CB, respectively of a right-angled triangle
ABC, right angled at C, then
(a) AP2 + PB2 = AB2
(b) AQ2 + BP2 = AB2 + PQ2
(c) BQ2 + QP2 = BP2
(d) AQ + BP = AB + PQ
Ans. (b)
18. The locus of a point equidistant from a fixed point is a
(a) circle
(b) straight line
(c) parabola
(d) hyperbola
Ans. (a)
19. If the interior angle of a regular polygon exceeds the exterior angle by 132°, then the
number of sides of the polygon is
(a) 15
(b) 14
(c) 13
(d) 12
Ans. (d)
20. If two circles touch each other internally then the distance between their centres is
equal to
(a) sum of their radii
(b) difference of their radii
(c) product of their radii
(d) smaller of two radii
Ans. (b)
21. If PQRS is a parallelogram inscribed in a circle, then it is a
(a) rhombus
(b) square
(c) rectang1e
(d) trapezium
Ans. (c)
22. If two circles touch each other externally at the point P and the straight line l touches
the two circles at the points Q and R respectively then Angle QPR is equal to
(a) 45°
(b) 55°
(c) 65°
(d) 90°
Ans. (d)
23. The distance between two parallel chords of lengths 8 cm and 6 cm, in a circle of
diameter 10 cm, if the chords are on the same side of the centre is
(a) 1 cm
(b) 2 cm
(c) 3 cm
(d) 4 cm
Ans. (a)
24. If two parallel chords of length 8 cm and 6 cm in a circle of radius 5 cm are on the
opposite sides of the centre, then the distance between the parallel chords is
(a) 5 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 7 cm
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
25. Two circles touch each other externally. If the distance between their centers is 7 cm
and if the diameter of one circle is 8 cm, then the diameter of the other is
(a) 5 cm
(b) 6 cm
(c) 7 cm
(d) 8 cm
Ans. (b)
Tuesday, August 23, 2011
general science trivia questions
general science trivia questions for School College Quiz and many Exams Like UPSc NDA Teachers PSC RRB .
Free Online Quiz Containing 20 Test Questions
1. The dimensions of Planck’s constant are the
same as the dimensions of-
(a) Energy
(b) Frequency
(c) Linear Momentum
(d) Angular Momentum
(e) None of the above
Answer. (d)
2. Sometimes the tubes in the well-inflated tyres of a cycle left in the sun burst open-
(a) Because the pressure of air inside the Tube increase
(b) Because the volume of air inside the tube increases due to rise in its temperature
(c) Because the tube containing air melts
(d) Because the volume and the pressure
both increase
(e) Nothing of the above
Answer. (b)
3. Galvanized iron is coated with a thin coating of-
(a) Copper
(b) Tin
( c ) Zinc
(d) Aluminum
(e) White lead
Answer. (c)
4. In the visible spectrum the colour having the
shortest wavelength is-
(a) Violet
(b) Blue
(c) Red
(d) Yellow
(e) Green
Answer. (a)
5. The heater element in an electric iron is
made of-
(a) Copper
(b) Tungsten
(C) Nichrome
(d) Iron
(e) Platinum
Answer. (c)
6. At sun rise or at sun set, the sun appears to
be reddish while at midday it looks white. This is because-
(a) The sun is colder at sunrise or at sunset
(b) Diffraction sends red rays to the earth at
these time
(c ) Refraction causes this phenomenon
(d) Scattering due to dust particles and air molecules causes this phenomenon
(e) None of these
Answer. (d)
7. The radiant energy of the sun results from-
(a) Nuclear fusion
(b) Nuclear fission
(c) Cosmic radiation
(d) Combustion
(e) Explosion
Answer. (a)
8. The image formed on the retina of the eye is-
(a) Upright and real
(b) Virtual and upright
(c) Real and inverted
(d) Enlarged and real
(e) Larger than the object
Answer. (c)
9. The surface water in a lake is just going to
Freeze. What is the temperature of water at
The bottom?
(a) 0°c
(b) More than 4°C
(c) 4°C
(d) Less than 4°C
(e) -2°C
Answer. (c)
10. Which of the following is the most viscous Medium ?
(a) Coal tar
(b) Water
(c) Glycerin
(d) Alcohol
(e) Air
Answer. (a)
11. Railway tracks are banked on curves so
That-
(a) No frictional force may be produced
between the track and the wheel
(b) The train may not fall down inwards
(c) The weight of the train may be reduced
(d) Necessary centripetal force may be
Obtained from the horizontal component
Of the weight of the train
(e) Necessary centrifugal force may be
Obtained from the horizontal component
Of the weight of the train
Answer. (d)
12. Oil rises up the wick in a lamp because-
(a) Oil is volatile
(b) Oil is very light
(c) Of the surface tension phenomenon
(d) Of the diffusion of oil through the wick
(e) Of the capillary action phenomenon
Answer. (c)
13. Which of the following utilizes Newton’s?
Third law of motion?
(a) Archery
(b) Space-rocket
(c) Venturimeter
(d) Internal combustion engine
(e) Kite flying
Answer. (b)
14. The main source of heat is-
(a) The sun
(b) The stars (excluding the sun)
(c) The interior of the earth
(d) Chemical reactions
(e) Electricity
Answer. (a)
15. The air becomes heated by-
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
(d) Expansio
(e) Diffusion
Answer. (b)
16. To a space traveller on the moon during day
Time the lunar sky appears-
(a) Blue
(b) Black
(c) White
(d) Red
(e) Yellow
Answer. (b)
17. Sound is a form of-
(a) Energy
(b) Matter
(c) Radiation
(d) Electromagnetic energy
(e) None of these
Answer. (a)
18. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Sound waves, not light waves, bend
around obstacles
(b) Light waves, not sound waves, bend
around obstacles
(c) Both light and sound waves bend around
obstacles
(d) Neither sound waves nor light waves
Bend around obstacles
(e) None of these
Answer. (e)
19. A mirage is the result of-
(a) The reflection of light from hot sand
(b) Fluctuation in the refractive index of the
Atmosphere with height
(c) Increase in the refractive index of the
Atmosphere with height
(d) Decrease in the refractive index of the
Atmosphere with height
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
20. A person cannot see objects clearly which
are nearer than 75 cms. From his eyes. What
Disease is he suffering from?
(a) Astigmatism
(b) Colour blindness
(C) Myopia
(d) Hypermetropia
(e) Hydrophobia
Answer. (d)
Free Online Quiz Containing 20 Test Questions
1. The dimensions of Planck’s constant are the
same as the dimensions of-
(a) Energy
(b) Frequency
(c) Linear Momentum
(d) Angular Momentum
(e) None of the above
Answer. (d)
2. Sometimes the tubes in the well-inflated tyres of a cycle left in the sun burst open-
(a) Because the pressure of air inside the Tube increase
(b) Because the volume of air inside the tube increases due to rise in its temperature
(c) Because the tube containing air melts
(d) Because the volume and the pressure
both increase
(e) Nothing of the above
Answer. (b)
3. Galvanized iron is coated with a thin coating of-
(a) Copper
(b) Tin
( c ) Zinc
(d) Aluminum
(e) White lead
Answer. (c)
4. In the visible spectrum the colour having the
shortest wavelength is-
(a) Violet
(b) Blue
(c) Red
(d) Yellow
(e) Green
Answer. (a)
5. The heater element in an electric iron is
made of-
(a) Copper
(b) Tungsten
(C) Nichrome
(d) Iron
(e) Platinum
Answer. (c)
6. At sun rise or at sun set, the sun appears to
be reddish while at midday it looks white. This is because-
(a) The sun is colder at sunrise or at sunset
(b) Diffraction sends red rays to the earth at
these time
(c ) Refraction causes this phenomenon
(d) Scattering due to dust particles and air molecules causes this phenomenon
(e) None of these
Answer. (d)
7. The radiant energy of the sun results from-
(a) Nuclear fusion
(b) Nuclear fission
(c) Cosmic radiation
(d) Combustion
(e) Explosion
Answer. (a)
8. The image formed on the retina of the eye is-
(a) Upright and real
(b) Virtual and upright
(c) Real and inverted
(d) Enlarged and real
(e) Larger than the object
Answer. (c)
9. The surface water in a lake is just going to
Freeze. What is the temperature of water at
The bottom?
(a) 0°c
(b) More than 4°C
(c) 4°C
(d) Less than 4°C
(e) -2°C
Answer. (c)
10. Which of the following is the most viscous Medium ?
(a) Coal tar
(b) Water
(c) Glycerin
(d) Alcohol
(e) Air
Answer. (a)
11. Railway tracks are banked on curves so
That-
(a) No frictional force may be produced
between the track and the wheel
(b) The train may not fall down inwards
(c) The weight of the train may be reduced
(d) Necessary centripetal force may be
Obtained from the horizontal component
Of the weight of the train
(e) Necessary centrifugal force may be
Obtained from the horizontal component
Of the weight of the train
Answer. (d)
12. Oil rises up the wick in a lamp because-
(a) Oil is volatile
(b) Oil is very light
(c) Of the surface tension phenomenon
(d) Of the diffusion of oil through the wick
(e) Of the capillary action phenomenon
Answer. (c)
13. Which of the following utilizes Newton’s?
Third law of motion?
(a) Archery
(b) Space-rocket
(c) Venturimeter
(d) Internal combustion engine
(e) Kite flying
Answer. (b)
14. The main source of heat is-
(a) The sun
(b) The stars (excluding the sun)
(c) The interior of the earth
(d) Chemical reactions
(e) Electricity
Answer. (a)
15. The air becomes heated by-
(a) Conduction
(b) Convection
(c) Radiation
(d) Expansio
(e) Diffusion
Answer. (b)
16. To a space traveller on the moon during day
Time the lunar sky appears-
(a) Blue
(b) Black
(c) White
(d) Red
(e) Yellow
Answer. (b)
17. Sound is a form of-
(a) Energy
(b) Matter
(c) Radiation
(d) Electromagnetic energy
(e) None of these
Answer. (a)
18. Which of the following statements is true?
(a) Sound waves, not light waves, bend
around obstacles
(b) Light waves, not sound waves, bend
around obstacles
(c) Both light and sound waves bend around
obstacles
(d) Neither sound waves nor light waves
Bend around obstacles
(e) None of these
Answer. (e)
19. A mirage is the result of-
(a) The reflection of light from hot sand
(b) Fluctuation in the refractive index of the
Atmosphere with height
(c) Increase in the refractive index of the
Atmosphere with height
(d) Decrease in the refractive index of the
Atmosphere with height
(e) None of these
Answer. (c)
20. A person cannot see objects clearly which
are nearer than 75 cms. From his eyes. What
Disease is he suffering from?
(a) Astigmatism
(b) Colour blindness
(C) Myopia
(d) Hypermetropia
(e) Hydrophobia
Answer. (d)
Monday, August 8, 2011
science objective type questions and answers
science objective type questions and answers
General Science Quiz - Multiple Choice Questions with Answers
General Science - General Knowledge Questions and Answers
1. If 10 g of ice at 0°C mixes with l0 g of water at 10°C, then the final temperature
t is given by
(a) (10 x 80) + 10(t-0) = 10(10-t)
(b) 10 x 80 = 10(10-t) + 10(t-0)
(c) t = 5°C
(d) t = 0°C
Ans. (d)
2. The amount of heat required for the above operation is
(a) 380 cal
(b) 500 cal
(c) 4.2 cal
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
3. One joule is approximately equal to
(a) 0.28 cal
(b) 0.32 cal
(c) 0.24 cal
(d) 4.2 cal
Ans. (c)
4. M g of ice at 0°C is to be converted to water at 0°C. If L is the latent heat of
fusion of ice, the quantity of heat required for the above operation would be
(a) MLca1
(b) M/ L
(c) L/ M
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
5. Two bodies A and B are said to be in thermal equilibrium with each other, if
(a) heat flows from A to B
(b) heat flows from B to A
(c) both the bodies lose equal amounts of heat to the atmosphere
(d) heat does not flow from either A or B
Ans. (d)
6. If a substance contracts on heating, its coefficient of linear expansion is
(a) +ve
(b) -ve
(c) zero
(d) infinity
Ans. (b)
7. The units of RH are
(a) kg-m-3
(b) kg
(c) kg-m2
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
8. If RH is high
(a) we feel sultry
(b) we perspire less
(c) clothes do not dry easily
(d) all the above are correct
Ans. (d)
9. When it is raining, the dew point is
(a) 0°C
(b) 100°C
(c) 50°C
(d) room temperature
Ans. (d)
10. The most comfortable value for RH is
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 90%
Ans. (c)
11. When the temperature of water rises, the rate of evaporation
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) first decrease then increases
Ans. (a)
12. The first thermometer was developed by
(a) Joule
(b) Fahrenheit
(c) Galileo
(d) Watt
Ans. (c)
13. The relative humidity is 50%, if air contains about
(a) 2.55 g of water Vapour at 40°C
(b) 25.5 g of water Vapour at 40°C
(c) 2.55 kg of water Vapour at 40°C
(d) 25.5 kg of water Vapour at 40°C
Ans. (b)
14. Relative humidity is the percentage of the
(a) absolute humidity value to the amount of humidity actually present
(b) increase of humidity/absolute humidity
(c) amount of humidity actually present to the
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
15. Evaporation is the process of changing liquid into vapour
(a) at any temperature
(b) above, its boiling point
(c) at its boiling point
(d) below its boiling point
Ans. (d)
16. When we cool a gas below its point, the KE of its molecules
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) first increases then decreases
Ans. (b)
17. A piece of ice at 0°C is added to a vessel containing water at 0°C, then
(a) all of the ice will melt
(b) some ice will melt
(c) no ice will melt
(d) the temperature will decrease further
Ans. (c)
18. At high temperature, the molecules of a substance
(a) move more vigorously
(b) move less vigorously
(c) become stationary
(d) are attracted strongly
Ans. (a)
19. Fahrenheit scale divides two fixed points into
(a) l80 parts
(b) 2l2 parts
(c) 100 parts
(d) 32 parts
Ans. (a)
20. Celsius scale divides two fixed points into
(a) 180 parts
(b) 212 parts
(c) 100 parts
(d) 32 parts
Ans. (c)
21. Two rods, one of iron and the other of aluminum, are heated to the same
temperature. Then,
(a) the iron rod will expand less
(b) the iron rod will expand more
(c) both rods will expand equally
(d) the iron rod will not expand at all
Ans. (a)
22. When steam condenses into water its
(a) temperature remains the same
(b) heat dissipates
(c) temperature increases
(d) temperature decreases
Ans. (b)
23. Two blocks of steel A and B, A being two times heavier than B, are at 40°C.
The ratio of heat content of A to B is
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1/ 2
Ans. (c)
24. When 60 calories of heat are supplied to 15 g of water, the rise in temperature is
(a) 75°C
(b) 900°C
(c) 4°C
(d) 0.25°C
Ans. (c)
25. A 10kg storage battery has an average specific heat of 0.2 kcal/kg°C. When fully
charged, the energy content of the battery is 1 kcal. If the entire energy were used
to raise the temperature, then the temperature would increase by
(a) 0.2°C
(b) 0.5°C
(c) 200°C
(d) 20°C
Ans. (b)
General Science Quiz - Multiple Choice Questions with Answers
General Science - General Knowledge Questions and Answers
1. If 10 g of ice at 0°C mixes with l0 g of water at 10°C, then the final temperature
t is given by
(a) (10 x 80) + 10(t-0) = 10(10-t)
(b) 10 x 80 = 10(10-t) + 10(t-0)
(c) t = 5°C
(d) t = 0°C
Ans. (d)
2. The amount of heat required for the above operation is
(a) 380 cal
(b) 500 cal
(c) 4.2 cal
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
3. One joule is approximately equal to
(a) 0.28 cal
(b) 0.32 cal
(c) 0.24 cal
(d) 4.2 cal
Ans. (c)
4. M g of ice at 0°C is to be converted to water at 0°C. If L is the latent heat of
fusion of ice, the quantity of heat required for the above operation would be
(a) MLca1
(b) M/ L
(c) L/ M
(d) none of these
Ans. (a)
5. Two bodies A and B are said to be in thermal equilibrium with each other, if
(a) heat flows from A to B
(b) heat flows from B to A
(c) both the bodies lose equal amounts of heat to the atmosphere
(d) heat does not flow from either A or B
Ans. (d)
6. If a substance contracts on heating, its coefficient of linear expansion is
(a) +ve
(b) -ve
(c) zero
(d) infinity
Ans. (b)
7. The units of RH are
(a) kg-m-3
(b) kg
(c) kg-m2
(d) none of these
Ans. (d)
8. If RH is high
(a) we feel sultry
(b) we perspire less
(c) clothes do not dry easily
(d) all the above are correct
Ans. (d)
9. When it is raining, the dew point is
(a) 0°C
(b) 100°C
(c) 50°C
(d) room temperature
Ans. (d)
10. The most comfortable value for RH is
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 90%
Ans. (c)
11. When the temperature of water rises, the rate of evaporation
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) first decrease then increases
Ans. (a)
12. The first thermometer was developed by
(a) Joule
(b) Fahrenheit
(c) Galileo
(d) Watt
Ans. (c)
13. The relative humidity is 50%, if air contains about
(a) 2.55 g of water Vapour at 40°C
(b) 25.5 g of water Vapour at 40°C
(c) 2.55 kg of water Vapour at 40°C
(d) 25.5 kg of water Vapour at 40°C
Ans. (b)
14. Relative humidity is the percentage of the
(a) absolute humidity value to the amount of humidity actually present
(b) increase of humidity/absolute humidity
(c) amount of humidity actually present to the
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
15. Evaporation is the process of changing liquid into vapour
(a) at any temperature
(b) above, its boiling point
(c) at its boiling point
(d) below its boiling point
Ans. (d)
16. When we cool a gas below its point, the KE of its molecules
(a) increases
(b) decreases
(c) remains the same
(d) first increases then decreases
Ans. (b)
17. A piece of ice at 0°C is added to a vessel containing water at 0°C, then
(a) all of the ice will melt
(b) some ice will melt
(c) no ice will melt
(d) the temperature will decrease further
Ans. (c)
18. At high temperature, the molecules of a substance
(a) move more vigorously
(b) move less vigorously
(c) become stationary
(d) are attracted strongly
Ans. (a)
19. Fahrenheit scale divides two fixed points into
(a) l80 parts
(b) 2l2 parts
(c) 100 parts
(d) 32 parts
Ans. (a)
20. Celsius scale divides two fixed points into
(a) 180 parts
(b) 212 parts
(c) 100 parts
(d) 32 parts
Ans. (c)
21. Two rods, one of iron and the other of aluminum, are heated to the same
temperature. Then,
(a) the iron rod will expand less
(b) the iron rod will expand more
(c) both rods will expand equally
(d) the iron rod will not expand at all
Ans. (a)
22. When steam condenses into water its
(a) temperature remains the same
(b) heat dissipates
(c) temperature increases
(d) temperature decreases
Ans. (b)
23. Two blocks of steel A and B, A being two times heavier than B, are at 40°C.
The ratio of heat content of A to B is
(a) 1
(b) 4
(c) 2
(d) 1/ 2
Ans. (c)
24. When 60 calories of heat are supplied to 15 g of water, the rise in temperature is
(a) 75°C
(b) 900°C
(c) 4°C
(d) 0.25°C
Ans. (c)
25. A 10kg storage battery has an average specific heat of 0.2 kcal/kg°C. When fully
charged, the energy content of the battery is 1 kcal. If the entire energy were used
to raise the temperature, then the temperature would increase by
(a) 0.2°C
(b) 0.5°C
(c) 200°C
(d) 20°C
Ans. (b)
Friday, August 5, 2011
General knowledge of world and science
General knowledge of world and science
General Knowledge Latest Informations General Knowledge Questions
General Knowledge Quiz Questions and Answers
1. Neo-colonialism means
(a) Domination of independent but economically less developed countries
(b) Exploitation of countries of Asia
(c) Conquest of Mia and Africa
(d) Conquest of America
Ans. (a)
2. The main cause of imperialism was
(a) Demands caused by industrial revolution
(b) Improvement in transport/communication
(c) Demand for slaves
(d) Demand for cash crops
Ans. (a)
3. African nations were rich in
(a) Mineral wealth
(b) Rubber and iron
(c) Slaves
(d) Cheap labor
Ans. (b)
4. China defeated by Japan had to pay ………… to Japan.
(a) 150 m dollars
(b) 160 m dollars
(c) 170 m dollars
(d) 180 m dollars
Ans. (a)
5. Burma was captured by
(a) Germany
(b) Britain
(c) USSR
(d) France
Ans. (b)
6. The Meiji Dynasty came to power in Japan in
(a) 1865
(b) 1866
(c) 1867
(d) 1868
Ans. (b)
7. Japan captured Korea in the year
(a) 1914
(b) 1912
(c) 1910
(d) 1916
Ans. (c)
8. The Dutch colony called Cape Colony was captured by the
(a) British
(b) German
(c) French
(d) Dutch
Ans. (b)
9. European conquest of Africa led to
(a) Racial discrimination
(b) Reckless killing
(c) Slave trade
(d) Exploitation
Ans. (c)
10. The Dollar diplomacy mean,
(a) Economic exploitation
(b) Big stick policy
(c) Civilizing doctrine
(d) Conversion policy
Ans. (a)
11. The temperature water at the bottom of a large waterfall is higher than that
of the water at the top, because
(a)the falling water absorbs heat from the sun
(b)the KE of the falling water is converted into heat
(c) the water at the bottom has greater PE
(d) rocks on the bed of the river give out heat
Ans. (b)
12. Calorimeters are generally made of
(a) copper
(b) brass
(c) aluminum
(d) zinc
Ans. (a)
13. The unit of latent heat is
(a) cal-g
(b) cal/°C
(c) cal/g
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
14. The unit of specific heat is
(a) cal°C
(b) ca1/g/°C
(c) cal/g
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
15. When 1 g of water at 100°C gets converted into steam at the same temperature,
the change in volume is approximately
(a) 1 cc
(b) 1000 cc
(c) 1500 cc
(d) 1670 cc
Ans. (d)
General Knowledge Latest Informations General Knowledge Questions
General Knowledge Quiz Questions and Answers
1. Neo-colonialism means
(a) Domination of independent but economically less developed countries
(b) Exploitation of countries of Asia
(c) Conquest of Mia and Africa
(d) Conquest of America
Ans. (a)
2. The main cause of imperialism was
(a) Demands caused by industrial revolution
(b) Improvement in transport/communication
(c) Demand for slaves
(d) Demand for cash crops
Ans. (a)
3. African nations were rich in
(a) Mineral wealth
(b) Rubber and iron
(c) Slaves
(d) Cheap labor
Ans. (b)
4. China defeated by Japan had to pay ………… to Japan.
(a) 150 m dollars
(b) 160 m dollars
(c) 170 m dollars
(d) 180 m dollars
Ans. (a)
5. Burma was captured by
(a) Germany
(b) Britain
(c) USSR
(d) France
Ans. (b)
6. The Meiji Dynasty came to power in Japan in
(a) 1865
(b) 1866
(c) 1867
(d) 1868
Ans. (b)
7. Japan captured Korea in the year
(a) 1914
(b) 1912
(c) 1910
(d) 1916
Ans. (c)
8. The Dutch colony called Cape Colony was captured by the
(a) British
(b) German
(c) French
(d) Dutch
Ans. (b)
9. European conquest of Africa led to
(a) Racial discrimination
(b) Reckless killing
(c) Slave trade
(d) Exploitation
Ans. (c)
10. The Dollar diplomacy mean,
(a) Economic exploitation
(b) Big stick policy
(c) Civilizing doctrine
(d) Conversion policy
Ans. (a)
11. The temperature water at the bottom of a large waterfall is higher than that
of the water at the top, because
(a)the falling water absorbs heat from the sun
(b)the KE of the falling water is converted into heat
(c) the water at the bottom has greater PE
(d) rocks on the bed of the river give out heat
Ans. (b)
12. Calorimeters are generally made of
(a) copper
(b) brass
(c) aluminum
(d) zinc
Ans. (a)
13. The unit of latent heat is
(a) cal-g
(b) cal/°C
(c) cal/g
(d) none of these
Ans. (c)
14. The unit of specific heat is
(a) cal°C
(b) ca1/g/°C
(c) cal/g
(d) none of these
Ans. (b)
15. When 1 g of water at 100°C gets converted into steam at the same temperature,
the change in volume is approximately
(a) 1 cc
(b) 1000 cc
(c) 1500 cc
(d) 1670 cc
Ans. (d)
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