India Current GK Practice test Sample Paper
General Knowledge for Entrance Exams
Sample Paper Practice Test objective GK Quiz
1. In a depressed economy, ‘Pump- financing’ is the term used to describe the measures taken by the—
(A) Public Sector units
(B)Charity funds
(C) Government
(D) Private Sector units
(E) None of these
2. Which of the following is the name of the programmer launched by the UIDAI to give identity cards to all Indian residents?
(A) Upahar
(B) Aadhaar
(C) Anusheelan
(D) Anugrahan
(E) None of these
3. Relationship between micro- finance and charity may be described as—
(A) Synonymous
(B) Mutually exclusive
(C) One as a sub set of the other
(D) Partially related to each other
(E) Cannot be established
4. According to annual Sample Registration System (SRS), survey conducted by the census authorities for the years 1998 and 2008, which one of the following state has noticed highest dip in population growth?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) West Bengal
(C) Kerala
(D) Andhra Pradesh
(E) Odisha
5. Which one of the following is the objective of Mines and Mineral Development and Regulation Act, 2010?
(A) To provide shareholding to tribals in mining projects
(B) To take the assistance of tribals in execution of mining projects
(C) To provide autonomy to tribals in the areas where they are living
(D) To provide regulatory powers to tribals for development of their areas
(E) None of these
6. Between inflation and deflation which one position do you feel is right?
(A) Deflation is harmful
(B) Both are equally bad
(C) Both needed to check over heated economies
(D) Both are not at all com parable
(E) Of the two, inflation seems less harmful
7. Which one of the following exactly is the reason owing to which the RBI has decided to undertake mid-quarter review of the monetary policy?
1. To realign its policies
2. To take corrective steps
3. To take surprise element out of off-cycle actions
(A) Only I
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) All 1,2and3
(E) None of these
8. Economies of scale would result into—
(A) Low production
(B) Subsidies received for large production
(C) Cost benefit due to intensive use of resources
(D) Low rate of taxation (E) none of these
9. ‘Labour moves in search of higher reward’ is the saying in practice. How far is this applicable in India?
(A) Fully relevant
(B) Partially relevant
(C) Not relevant at all
(D) There is no such evidence
(E) It was true in British Raj only
10. In our country’s import—bill, the biggest share is of which of the following?
(A) Cereals and pulses etc.
(B) Outward payments for royalty and fees
(C) Diamond and jewellery
(D) Petroleum and crude
(E) Textile and garments
11. WTO replaced ‘GATT’ in which year?
(A) 1990
(B) 1997
(C) 1989
(D) 2001
(E) 1995
12. Which of the following is associated with Health Schemes launched by the Govt. of India?
(A)ASHA
(B)Kutir Jyoti
(C)Aadhaar
(D)Subhjivan None of these
13. Who amongst the following is the chairperson of the Farmers Commission of India at present?
(A) Dr. M. S. Ahluwalia
(B) Dr. Bimal Jalan
(C) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(D) Dr. Y. V. Reddy
(E) None of these
14. Which one of the following are components of Gross Domestic Product?
1. Gross Consumption plus Gross investment
2. Government spending
Exports minus Imports
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only2and3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
15. For which one of the following reasons, UNO has advocated the use of Jatropha for bio-diesel production?
(A) It will help in lowering consumption of fossil fuel
(B) It will help in controlling pollution
(C) It will help in controlling the fuel prices
16. Who amongst the following is the author of the Book, ‘Towards A Hunger Free World’?
(A) Dr. Y. V. Reddy
(B) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(C) Dr. C. Rangarajan
(D) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(E) None of these
17. Under Jawaharlal Nehru Solar Mission, by which of the following years India expects to generate 1,000 mw solar power ?
(A) 2011
(B) 2013
(C) 2014
(D) 2015
(E) None of these
18. Who amongst the following was the recipient of the Nobel Prize
for Economics 2010?
1. Peter Diamond
2. Dale Mortensen
3. Christopher Pissorides
(A)Only 1
(B)Only 2
(C)Only 3
(D)All 1, 2 and 3
None of these
19. For which one of the following reasons, IMF has voiced that Asia need to be prepared for possible shocks?
(A) There is little flow of capital to Asian Countries from Europe
(B) The inflation figures are high in most of the Asian countries
(C) The flow of money from exports is declining
(D) The Asian countries are using more and more stimulus measures
(E) None of these
20. In which one of the following states, NHPC has commissioned all the three units of the 120 mw ‘SEWA’ hydroelectric project ?
(A) Uttarakhand
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Arunachal Pradesh
(D) Himachal Pradesh
(E) Jammu and Kashmir
21. What per cent of our population is below 25 years of age?
(A) More than 25 per cent
(B) Less than 25 per cent
(C) More than 30 per cent
(D) Less than 30 per cent
(E) None of these
22. Who is Dr. C. Rangarajan?
(A) Member, Planning Commission
(B) Chairman—Prime Minister Economies Advisory Council
(C) Governor, Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(D) India’s permanent representative to UNO
(E) None of these
23. Which of the following organizations is associated with women empowerment?
(A) SEWA
(B) ASHA
(C) AKSHARA Foundation
(D) Cry
(E) None of these
24. Which of the following is a Horticultural crop?
(A)Wheat
(B) Jute
(C)Mango
(D) Jowar
(E) Sugarcane
25. Who is the Founder of Wikileaks
(A) Vaughan Smith
(B) Julian Assange
(C) David Mulfords
(D) John Kerry
(E) None of these
1 E
2 B
3 E
4 C
5 B
6 B
7 C
8 B
9 A
10 D
11 E
12 A
13 E
14 E
15 D
16 D
17 B
18 D
19 B
20 E
21 C
22 C
23 B
24 C
25 B
Thursday, June 30, 2011
Saturday, June 25, 2011
Free Online Science GK
Free Online Science GK
Free Online General Knowledge Preparation Test Science
Free Online Science Gk Practice and Preparation Test
1. The density of ice is x g cm -3 and that of water is y g cm-3. When m gram of ice melts, then change in volume is—
(A) m (y—x)
(B) y—x/m
(C) my (x-.y)
(D) (m/x –m/y)
Ans. (D)
2. The work function of a metallic surface is 5.01 eV. The photoelectrons are emitted when light of wavelength 2000 A falls on it. The stopping potential is—
(A) 2.24V
(B) 1.2V
(C) 2.4 V
(D) 4.8 V
Ans. (B)
3. Chemical behaviour of an element is related to-
(A) Atomic number
(B) Atomic size
(C) Atomic volume
(D) Atomic structure
Ans. (D)
4…………. waves can not be transmitted through vacuum.
(A) Light
(B) Heat
(C) Sound
(D) Electromagnetism
Ans. (C)
5. The geometry of NaCl is—
(A) Triangular
(B) Tetrahedral
(C) Octahedral
(D) Diagonal
Ans. (C)
6. The bond angle in the molecules H2O, NH3, CH4, CO2 are in order—
(A) H2O>NH3>CH4>CO2
(B) H2O
7. Borax has the formula—
(A) Na2B4O7
(B) Na2B4O75H2O
(C) Na2B4O77H2O
(D) Na2B4O710H2O
Ans. (D)
8. Brass contains—
(A) Cu + Sn
(B) Cu + Ni
(C) Cu + Zn
(D) Mg + Al
Ans. (C)
9. The best technique employed for concentration and purification of a compound is—
(A) Sublimation
(B) Chromatography
(C) Steam Distillation
(D) Fractional Distillation
Ans. (B)
10. Which of the following compounds would undergo cannizaro’s reaction?
(A) Propionaldehyde
(B) Benzaldehyde
(C) Bromobenzene
(D) Acetaldehyde
Ans. (B)
11. Which does not show resonance?
(A) Benzene
(B) Aniline
(C) Ethylamine
(D) Toluene
Ans. (C)
12. The edible part of cauliflower is—
(A) Bud
(B) Flower
(C) Inflorescence
(D) Fruit
Ans. (B)
13. Most of cereals belong to—
(A) Malvacea
(B) Solanacea
(C) Graminea
(D) Leguminosae
Ans. (C)
14. Death of stem and root tips occurs due to the deficiency of—
(A) Phosphorous
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Calcium
(D) Carbon
Ans. (C)
15. Sporophyte of fern produces—
(A) Seeds
(B) Pollen
(C) Spores
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
16. Duramen or heart wood is—
(A) Outer region of the secondary wood
(B) Inner region of the secondary wood
(C) Region of pericycle
(D) Another name of cambium
Ans. (B)
17. Lichens are the best indicator of—
(A) Air pollution in cities
(B) Water pollution in the hills
(C) Water pollution in the rivers
(D) Soil pollution in the deserts
Ans. (A)
18. Insulin crystals are found in—
(A) Wheat root
(B) Mango root
(C) Dahlia root
(D) Sugarcane root
Ans. (C)
19. The best example of poly-embryony is—
(A) Cocas
(B) Citrus
(C) Capsicum
(D) Cycas
Ans. (D)
20. Which one of the following is an insectivorous plant?
(A) Castor
(B) Hydrilla
(C) Ranunculus
(D) Drosera
Ans. (D)
21. Genetic recombination occurs through—
(A) Mitosis and-fertilization
(B) Mitosis and meiosis
(C) Meiosis division
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
22. What is an Rh-factor?
(A) A type of sugar
(B) ADNA
(C) An enzyme related
(D) Blood group
Ans. (D)
23. Virus are—
(A) Accellular
(B) Poly-cellular
(C) Mono-cellular
(D) Bi-cellular
Ans. (A)
24. Blood is made of—
(A) Plasma
(B) Lymphocytes
(C) Hemoglobin
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
25. Ascaris normally inhabits the lumen of—
(A) Stomach
(B) Small intestine
(C) Large intestine
(D) Appendix
Ans. (B)
Free Online General Knowledge Preparation Test Science
Free Online Science Gk Practice and Preparation Test
1. The density of ice is x g cm -3 and that of water is y g cm-3. When m gram of ice melts, then change in volume is—
(A) m (y—x)
(B) y—x/m
(C) my (x-.y)
(D) (m/x –m/y)
Ans. (D)
2. The work function of a metallic surface is 5.01 eV. The photoelectrons are emitted when light of wavelength 2000 A falls on it. The stopping potential is—
(A) 2.24V
(B) 1.2V
(C) 2.4 V
(D) 4.8 V
Ans. (B)
3. Chemical behaviour of an element is related to-
(A) Atomic number
(B) Atomic size
(C) Atomic volume
(D) Atomic structure
Ans. (D)
4…………. waves can not be transmitted through vacuum.
(A) Light
(B) Heat
(C) Sound
(D) Electromagnetism
Ans. (C)
5. The geometry of NaCl is—
(A) Triangular
(B) Tetrahedral
(C) Octahedral
(D) Diagonal
Ans. (C)
6. The bond angle in the molecules H2O, NH3, CH4, CO2 are in order—
(A) H2O>NH3>CH4>CO2
(B) H2O
7. Borax has the formula—
(A) Na2B4O7
(B) Na2B4O75H2O
(C) Na2B4O77H2O
(D) Na2B4O710H2O
Ans. (D)
8. Brass contains—
(A) Cu + Sn
(B) Cu + Ni
(C) Cu + Zn
(D) Mg + Al
Ans. (C)
9. The best technique employed for concentration and purification of a compound is—
(A) Sublimation
(B) Chromatography
(C) Steam Distillation
(D) Fractional Distillation
Ans. (B)
10. Which of the following compounds would undergo cannizaro’s reaction?
(A) Propionaldehyde
(B) Benzaldehyde
(C) Bromobenzene
(D) Acetaldehyde
Ans. (B)
11. Which does not show resonance?
(A) Benzene
(B) Aniline
(C) Ethylamine
(D) Toluene
Ans. (C)
12. The edible part of cauliflower is—
(A) Bud
(B) Flower
(C) Inflorescence
(D) Fruit
Ans. (B)
13. Most of cereals belong to—
(A) Malvacea
(B) Solanacea
(C) Graminea
(D) Leguminosae
Ans. (C)
14. Death of stem and root tips occurs due to the deficiency of—
(A) Phosphorous
(B) Nitrogen
(C) Calcium
(D) Carbon
Ans. (C)
15. Sporophyte of fern produces—
(A) Seeds
(B) Pollen
(C) Spores
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
16. Duramen or heart wood is—
(A) Outer region of the secondary wood
(B) Inner region of the secondary wood
(C) Region of pericycle
(D) Another name of cambium
Ans. (B)
17. Lichens are the best indicator of—
(A) Air pollution in cities
(B) Water pollution in the hills
(C) Water pollution in the rivers
(D) Soil pollution in the deserts
Ans. (A)
18. Insulin crystals are found in—
(A) Wheat root
(B) Mango root
(C) Dahlia root
(D) Sugarcane root
Ans. (C)
19. The best example of poly-embryony is—
(A) Cocas
(B) Citrus
(C) Capsicum
(D) Cycas
Ans. (D)
20. Which one of the following is an insectivorous plant?
(A) Castor
(B) Hydrilla
(C) Ranunculus
(D) Drosera
Ans. (D)
21. Genetic recombination occurs through—
(A) Mitosis and-fertilization
(B) Mitosis and meiosis
(C) Meiosis division
(D) None of these
Ans. (C)
22. What is an Rh-factor?
(A) A type of sugar
(B) ADNA
(C) An enzyme related
(D) Blood group
Ans. (D)
23. Virus are—
(A) Accellular
(B) Poly-cellular
(C) Mono-cellular
(D) Bi-cellular
Ans. (A)
24. Blood is made of—
(A) Plasma
(B) Lymphocytes
(C) Hemoglobin
(D) None of these
Ans. (A)
25. Ascaris normally inhabits the lumen of—
(A) Stomach
(B) Small intestine
(C) Large intestine
(D) Appendix
Ans. (B)
GK on Vitamins and Nutrients objective test
GK on Vitamins and Nutrients objective test
General knowledge Sample Paper Vitamins and Nutrients
Solved Objective test
1. What are vitamins?
(a) Building materials for the body
(b) Energy providers
(c) Essential organic substances
(d) Essential fatty acids
2. Fat soluble vitamins include
(a) B6, B12
(b) B2, B3
(c) D, A
(d) B1, folic acid
3. Which of the following can be found in the epidermis?
(a) Elastin
(b) Melanocytes
(c) Lymph vessels
(d) Sweat glands
4. What can hyper secretion of thyroxin in adults cause?
(a) Graves disease
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Cretinism
(d) Dwarfism
5. What does lipase digest?
(a) Starch
(b) Proteins
(c) Fats
(d) Carbohydrates
6. The aerobic system is used by the body for exercise
(a) Which lasts for longer than. 3 minutes
(b) Of short duration
(c) Of high intensity
(d) Which starts after 10 minutes of exercise
7. Contra indications to aerobic exercise requiring medical approval include
(a) Smokers
(b) After eating a heavy meal
(c) Undiagnosed illness
(d) Exhaustion
8. What type of charge does a-neutron have?
(c) The physiological stress on the
(a) A negative electrical charge body during exercise
(b) A positive electrical charge
(d). A waste product of anaerobic
(c) An interchangeable electrical energy production charge
9. A nutrient believed to help prevent thrombosis is.
(a) omega-3 fat
(b) selenium
(c) monounsaturated fat
(d) vitamin E
10. The major type of fat in olive oil is
(a) saturated fat
(b) polyunsaturated fat
(c) monounsaturated fat
(d) omega 3 fat
11. Nutrition /doctor recommends that the diet should contain the following percentage of energy as fat:
(a) under 40
(b) under 35
(c) under 30
(d) under 25
12. A common nutrient deficiency in alcoholics is:
(a) vitamin A
(b) protein
(c) vitamin B1 (thiamin)
(d) iron
13. How many kilojoules of energy from protein would 50 grams of pine nuts provide?
(a) 11
(b) 176
(c) 187
(d) 1100
14. The diets of adolescents are often low in
(a) fat, vitamin B, and protein
(b) sodium, complex carbohydrates, and protein
(c) iron, sodium, and calcium
(d) calcium, iron, and fibre
15. The effects of bulimia are similar to those of anorexia nervosa, but they may also include
(a) nausea, deceitful behaviour, emaciation, and low se1f-steern
(b) emaciation, abdominal pain, bladder weakness, and depression
(c) dental decay, abdominal pain, kidney problems, and potassium deficiency
(d) weight loss, excess potassium, headaches, and fluid imbalance
16. Which of the following situations is most likely to contribute to famine?
(a) Drought in Western Europe
(b) Overpopulation in Japan
(c) Floods in New Zealand
(d) War in the desert regions of Africa
17. Hypertension is often associated with a
(a) high fibre and low salt intake
(b) high salt and high fat intake
(c) high fat and low sugar intake
(d) high salt and high fibre intake
18. What is an emulsion?
(a) A mixture of two liquids whose droplets do not normally blend’ with each other
(b) A process to remove most of the water from a food
(c) A process that reduces the size of fat globules to small size so they can be suspended in a liquid
(d) A special liquid to reduce micro organisms in foods
19. Which bacterium causes the most food-borne illnesses in the U.S.?
(a) Salmonella
(b) E. coli
(c) Listeria monocytogenes
(d) Campylobacter
20. What substance do potatoes contain which can cause severe reactions in people?
(a) Solanine
(b) Starch
(c) Alkaloid
(d) Mutagen
21. Which of the following food components is primarily derived from fruits, vegetables, and grains?
(a) Fat
(b) Protein
(c) Minerals
(d) Carbohydrates
22. Antioxidants perform all of the following except
(a) prevent protein degradation
(b) preserve colour
(c) minimize rancidity
(d) preserve flavour
23. The international symbol used to indicate food has been irradiated is called the ________________
(a) beta
(b) kosher
(c) gamma
(d) radula
24. What provision states that no additive shall be deemed to be safe if it is found to induce cancer when ingested?
(a) Food Additives Law
(b) Delaney Clause
(c) Federal Food and Drug Act
(d) Nutritional Labeling and Education Act
25. The term fruiting body, in microbiology refers to
(a) buds on trees
(b) bacteria division
(c) binary fission ‘
(d) stem producing spores
Answers
1 c
2 c
3 b
4 a
5 c
6 c
7 a
8 d
9 a
10 c
11 c
12 c
13 d
14 d
15 d
16 a
17 b
18 a
19 d
20 a
21 d
22 a
23 d
24 b
25 b
General knowledge Sample Paper Vitamins and Nutrients
Solved Objective test
1. What are vitamins?
(a) Building materials for the body
(b) Energy providers
(c) Essential organic substances
(d) Essential fatty acids
2. Fat soluble vitamins include
(a) B6, B12
(b) B2, B3
(c) D, A
(d) B1, folic acid
3. Which of the following can be found in the epidermis?
(a) Elastin
(b) Melanocytes
(c) Lymph vessels
(d) Sweat glands
4. What can hyper secretion of thyroxin in adults cause?
(a) Graves disease
(b) Myxoedema
(c) Cretinism
(d) Dwarfism
5. What does lipase digest?
(a) Starch
(b) Proteins
(c) Fats
(d) Carbohydrates
6. The aerobic system is used by the body for exercise
(a) Which lasts for longer than. 3 minutes
(b) Of short duration
(c) Of high intensity
(d) Which starts after 10 minutes of exercise
7. Contra indications to aerobic exercise requiring medical approval include
(a) Smokers
(b) After eating a heavy meal
(c) Undiagnosed illness
(d) Exhaustion
8. What type of charge does a-neutron have?
(c) The physiological stress on the
(a) A negative electrical charge body during exercise
(b) A positive electrical charge
(d). A waste product of anaerobic
(c) An interchangeable electrical energy production charge
9. A nutrient believed to help prevent thrombosis is.
(a) omega-3 fat
(b) selenium
(c) monounsaturated fat
(d) vitamin E
10. The major type of fat in olive oil is
(a) saturated fat
(b) polyunsaturated fat
(c) monounsaturated fat
(d) omega 3 fat
11. Nutrition /doctor recommends that the diet should contain the following percentage of energy as fat:
(a) under 40
(b) under 35
(c) under 30
(d) under 25
12. A common nutrient deficiency in alcoholics is:
(a) vitamin A
(b) protein
(c) vitamin B1 (thiamin)
(d) iron
13. How many kilojoules of energy from protein would 50 grams of pine nuts provide?
(a) 11
(b) 176
(c) 187
(d) 1100
14. The diets of adolescents are often low in
(a) fat, vitamin B, and protein
(b) sodium, complex carbohydrates, and protein
(c) iron, sodium, and calcium
(d) calcium, iron, and fibre
15. The effects of bulimia are similar to those of anorexia nervosa, but they may also include
(a) nausea, deceitful behaviour, emaciation, and low se1f-steern
(b) emaciation, abdominal pain, bladder weakness, and depression
(c) dental decay, abdominal pain, kidney problems, and potassium deficiency
(d) weight loss, excess potassium, headaches, and fluid imbalance
16. Which of the following situations is most likely to contribute to famine?
(a) Drought in Western Europe
(b) Overpopulation in Japan
(c) Floods in New Zealand
(d) War in the desert regions of Africa
17. Hypertension is often associated with a
(a) high fibre and low salt intake
(b) high salt and high fat intake
(c) high fat and low sugar intake
(d) high salt and high fibre intake
18. What is an emulsion?
(a) A mixture of two liquids whose droplets do not normally blend’ with each other
(b) A process to remove most of the water from a food
(c) A process that reduces the size of fat globules to small size so they can be suspended in a liquid
(d) A special liquid to reduce micro organisms in foods
19. Which bacterium causes the most food-borne illnesses in the U.S.?
(a) Salmonella
(b) E. coli
(c) Listeria monocytogenes
(d) Campylobacter
20. What substance do potatoes contain which can cause severe reactions in people?
(a) Solanine
(b) Starch
(c) Alkaloid
(d) Mutagen
21. Which of the following food components is primarily derived from fruits, vegetables, and grains?
(a) Fat
(b) Protein
(c) Minerals
(d) Carbohydrates
22. Antioxidants perform all of the following except
(a) prevent protein degradation
(b) preserve colour
(c) minimize rancidity
(d) preserve flavour
23. The international symbol used to indicate food has been irradiated is called the ________________
(a) beta
(b) kosher
(c) gamma
(d) radula
24. What provision states that no additive shall be deemed to be safe if it is found to induce cancer when ingested?
(a) Food Additives Law
(b) Delaney Clause
(c) Federal Food and Drug Act
(d) Nutritional Labeling and Education Act
25. The term fruiting body, in microbiology refers to
(a) buds on trees
(b) bacteria division
(c) binary fission ‘
(d) stem producing spores
Answers
1 c
2 c
3 b
4 a
5 c
6 c
7 a
8 d
9 a
10 c
11 c
12 c
13 d
14 d
15 d
16 a
17 b
18 a
19 d
20 a
21 d
22 a
23 d
24 b
25 b
Thursday, June 23, 2011
RBI General Awareness Previous Paper Solved MCQ Objective test
RBI General Awareness Previous Paper Solved MCQ Objective test
Reserve Bank of India Grade ‘B’ Officers Exam. 2011
Solved Paper : General Awareness
General Awareness Solved Questions For RBI
1. What role do Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) play in a country’s economic and industrial development ?
1. They have the capacity to absorb skilled and unskilled labour available in the country.
2. Such institutions help in distribution of income in a wide spectrum and do not allow it to get concentrated in few hands or in few areas.
3. They help in eradication of poverty by providing selfemployment opportunities.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
2. Which of the following statements about the Indian Economy is correct ?
(A) Indian economy is as developed as that of China
(B) About 70% Indians are involved in some type of selfemployment and are the owners of some or the other micro or small enterprise
(C) In India single biggest employment is agriculture and allied activities
(D) About 48% Indian workforce is employed in foreign countries or in organizations assisted by foreign capital
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. Which of the following is/are correct about the problems of Indian Agriculture ?
1. Large agricultural subsidies are hampering productivity—enhancing investments.
2. Irrigation infrastructure is in bad shape and needs immediate improvement.
3. Frequent takeovers of fertile land by private companies and multinationals to launch big business complexes.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. As per news in various journals, many banks have failed to achieve agri-loan target fixed by the RBI for the year 2010-11. What was the target fixed for the year ?
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 18%
(D) 24%
(E) 30%
Ans : (C)
5. Which of the following statements about Agro and Allied activities is not correct ?
(A) Farmers do not get adequate credit for purchase of cattle
(B) There is a need to improve breed and genetic characteristics of the cattle folk
(C) India has huge forest cover and also degraded and marshy land which can be used for productive purposes
(D) India is the 10th largest producer of medicinal and aromatic plants. But the products are not of commercial value
(E) Animal husbandry plays an important role in providing sustainability under Rain fed conditions
Ans : (C)
6. Which of the following schemes launched by the Govt. of India aims at enhancing the livelihood security of the people in rural areas by guaranteeing hundred days of employment in a financial year to a rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work ?
(A) TRYSEM
(B) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(C) Kutir Jyoti Scheme
(D) ASHA
(E) MGNREGA
Ans : (E)
7. In some parts of India, farmers face acute distress because of heavy burden of debt from noninstitutional lenders. Who can be called a non-institutional lender ?
(A) Small Banks
(B) Grameen Banks
(C) Credit Cooperative Societies
(D) Micro Finance Institutions
(E) Money Lenders
Ans : (E)
8. The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was introduced with a view of levying how much custom duty for trading any product within the SAARC zone ?
(A) 5%
(B) 4%
(C) 2%
(D) 1%
(E) No custom duty
Ans : (E)
9. Which of the following organisation prepares rural credit plans on annual basis for all districts in India, which in turn from the base for annual credit plans of all rural financial institutions ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) NABARD
(C) RBI
(D) Indian Bank’s Association
(E) CII
Ans : (B)
10. Which of the following is TRUE about the current population trend(s) in India ?
1. Every year India adds more people to the world’s population than any other country.
2. Currently India has a young population which will grow somewhat older largely as a result of decline in fertility.
3. The National Family Planning Programme did not contribute much in controlling fertility rate
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)
11. In economic terms, which of the following factors determine the ‘Individual’s demand’ of a product/commodity ?
1. Price of a commodity.
2. Income of the individual.
3. Utility and quality of a commodity.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
12. Which of the following terms is used in the field of economics ?
(A) Adiabatic
(B) Bohr Theory
(C) Plasma
(D) Barter System
(E) Viscosity
Ans : (D)
13. “Pascal Lamy calls on trade negotiators to move out of their comfort zones towards agreements”, was the headline in some major newspapers. This news is associated with which of the following organizations/agencies ?
(A) World Trade Organization
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) World Bank
(D) United Nations Organisations
(E) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
Ans : (A)
14. Which of the following is not a function of the Planning Commission of India ?
(A) Assessment of the material, capital and human resources of the country
(B) Formulation of plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of country’s resources
(C) Public cooperation in national development
(D) Preparation of annual budget of the country and collection of taxes to raise capital for the implementation of the plans
(E) Determination of stages in which the plan should be carried out
Ans : (D)
15. Which of the following periods represents the period of the first Five Year Plan in India ?
(A) 1948 – 53
(B) 1947 – 52
(C) 1952 – 57
(D) 1950 – 55
(E) 1951 – 56
Ans : (E)
16. Which of the following is the name of the process available to common people to seek court’s intervention in matters of public interest ?
(A) Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Ordinance
(D) Residuary power
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
17. India’s foreign policy is based on several principles, one of which is—
(A) Panchsheel
(B) Satyamev Jayate
(C) Live and Let Live
(D) Vasudhaiv Kutumbkam
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
18. As we know thousands of tonnes of foodgrain was washed away in the floods in Haryana and Punjab a few months back. This incident is an example which indicates that there is a scope for improvement in our machinery controlling our—
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(B) Public Distribution System
(C) Food for Work Programme
(D) Village Grain Bank Scheme
(E) Operation Flood Scheme
Ans : (B)
19. President Barack Obama was on a visit to India a few months back. His visit is said to have forged both the nations into a new era of relations. India managed to sign a special agreement with US in which of the following fields/areas as a byproduct of the visit of Obama ?
1. Energy sector and Nuclear energy as US has lifted sanctions on supply of high tech machines.
2. Skill Development Programmes in IT sector in which US has super-specialisation.
3. Training in management of Micro finance Institutions.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)
20. Many times we read a term ‘Tax Haven’ in various newspapers. What does it mean ?
1. It is a country where certain taxes are levied at a very low rate.
2. It is a country where people can dump their illegal money without any problem.
3. It is a place where foreigners can work without paying any tax on their income.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 1
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
21. As per existing law, what is the minimum per day wages paid to a worker from unorganised sector in India ?
(A) 50
(B) 75
(C) 100
(D) 125
(E) No such law is there
Ans : (C)
22. Who amongst the following was awarded the “Indira Gandhi Peace Prize” for 2010 ?
(A) Ronald Noble
(B) Luiz Inacio Lula D’Silva
(C) Mohammed Elbaradei
(D) Aung San Su Kyi
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
23. Which of the following is not a Poverty Eradication Programme launched by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
(B) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana
(C) National Social Assistance Programme
(D) ADHAR
(E) National Family Benefit Scheme
Ans : (D)
24. According to the World Bank estimate about 40% Indians are living below International Poverty line of US $ —
(A) 1 per day
(B) 1•25 per day
(C) 2 per day
(D) 2•5 per day
(E) 3 per day
Ans : (B)
25. The 10th Trilateral Ministerial Meeting of RIC group was organized in November 2010. Who are the members of the RIC ?
(A) Russia—Iran—China
(B) Russia—India—China
(C) Romania—Iran—Canada
(D) Romania—Israel—Chile
(E) Russia—India—Croatia
Ans : (B)
26. India and Syria recently decided to double their trade in next 2 years. Indian Govt. has decided to export which of the following commodities to Syria ?
(A) Natural gas
(B) Milk
(C) Oil
(D) Wheat
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
27. India has sanctioned a 26 million grant to which of the following countries for development of tube wells ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan
(E) Sri Lanka
Ans : (C)
28. Which of the following is the name of the scheme launched by the Govt. of India for adolescent girls ? (Launched in November 2010)
(A) Swawlamban
(B) SABALA
(C) Aadhar
(D) ASHA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
29. Many times we see in financial journals/bulletins a term M3. What is M3 ?
(A) Currency in circulation on a particular day
(B) Total value of the foreign exchange on a particular day
(C) Total value of export credit on a given date
(D) Total value of the tax collected in a year
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
30. As per news in various newspapers, Govt. has allocated a huge sum of 31,000 crore for ‘RTE’. What is full form of RTE ?
(A) Right of Education
(B) Reforms in Technical Education
(C) Return to Empowerment
(D) Right to Empowerment
(E) Renewable Technology for Energy
Ans : (A)
31. Which of the following is not a major function of the RBI in India ?
(A) Issuance of currency notes
(B) To facilitate external trade and payment and developing a foreign exchange market in India
(C) Maintaining price stability and ensuring adequate flow of credit to productive sectors
(D) Taking loans/credit from World Bank/IMF and ADB etc., and reallocating it for various activities decided by the Govt. of India
(E) Formulation and monitoring the monetary and credit policy
Ans : (C)
32. The RBI has regional offices at various places. At which of the following places it does not have an office ?
(A) Kota
(B) Shimla
(C) Lucknow
(D) Panaji
(E) Guwahati
Ans : (C)
33. Which of the following organizations/agencies has given a US $ 407 billion loan to India to boost up its micro finance services in unbanked areas ?
(A) IMF
(B) World Bank
(C) Bank of Japan
(D) ADB
(E) Jointly by IMF and ADB
Ans : (B)
34. The Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council (PMEAC) has projected that the Indian Exports will grow by what percentage during 2010-11 ?
(A) 15%
(B) 18%
(C) 22%
(D) 24%
(E) 28%
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following organisations/agencies has given the estimate that the India will be third largest FDI recipient in 2010–12 ?
(A) UNCTAD
(B) WTO
(C) World Bank
(D) IMF
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
36. The performance of which of the following industries is considered performance of a core industry ?
(A) Garments
(B) Leather
(C) IT
(D) Oil and Petroleum
(E) Handicrafts
Ans : (D)
37. Who amongst the following is not a recipient of Nobel Prize in economics ?
(A) Peter A. Diamond
(B) Dale T. Mortensen
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) Paul Krugman
(E) Robert G. Edwards
Ans : (E)
38. Basel Committee has given its recommendations on which of the following aspects of banking operations ?
(A) Marketing of bank products
(B) Priority sector lending
(C) Risk Management
(D) Micro financing
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)
39. Which of the following is the rank of India in Human Development Report 2010 prepared by the UNO ?
(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) 115
(D) 119
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
40. Which of the following was/where the key objectives of the RBI’s review of Monetary and Credit Policy 2010-11 which was reviewed again on 2nd November 2010 ?
1. To sustain the anti inflationary thrust.
2. To maintain an interest rate regime consistent with price.
3. To provide extra tax incentives to exporters who were in stress due to market fluctuations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
41. PIIGS is the group of nations falling under—
(A) Euro zone
(B) Asia Pacific
(C) SAARC
(D) NATO
(E) Commonwealth
Ans : (A)
42. Which of the following is/are the preconditions, the IMF has put to provide bail out package to Ireland ?
1. It should gradually lower down unemployment benefits.
2. It should bring down the minimum wages in order to boost employment.
3. It should import some of the crucial commodities from non euro countries as an immediate measure to improve shortage of the same.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) Only 1
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)
43. India is self-sufficient in production of which of the following commodities ?
(A) Edible oil
(B) Milk
(C) Pulses
(D) Natural gas
(E) All of these
Ans : (B)
44. Which of the following is used as a fuel in Nuclear power stations in India ?
(A) Thorium
(B) Copper
(C) Tin
(D) Chromium
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)
45. Which of the following States has taken up the job of improving Dams with the help of the World Bank’s Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement project ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Gujarat
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Guwahati
Ans : (A)
46. Nitish Kumar led National Democratic Alliance won how many seats in recently held assembly elections in Bihar ?
(A) 150
(B) 243
(C) 200
(D) 206
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
47. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “Development as Freedom” ?
(A) M. S. Swaminathan
(B) C. Rangarajan
(C) Manmohan Singh
(D) Y. V. Reddy
(E) Amartya Sen
Ans : (E)
48. Which of the following terms is used in Finance and Banking ?
(A) Line of Sight
(B) Scattering loss
(C) Revenue
(D) Oscillation
(E) Shielding
Ans : (A)
49. Who amongst the following is a famous economist ?
(A) Richard Dawkins
(B) Alan Greenspan
(C) Vernon Heywood
(D) Olivar Sachs
(E) Stephan Hawking
Ans : (B)
50. Who amongst the following has never held post of the Governor of the RBI ?
(A) C. Rangarajan
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) Manmohan Singh
(D) Bimal Jalan
(E) Usha Thorat
Ans : (E)
Reserve Bank of India Grade ‘B’ Officers Exam. 2011
Solved Paper : General Awareness
General Awareness Solved Questions For RBI
1. What role do Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) play in a country’s economic and industrial development ?
1. They have the capacity to absorb skilled and unskilled labour available in the country.
2. Such institutions help in distribution of income in a wide spectrum and do not allow it to get concentrated in few hands or in few areas.
3. They help in eradication of poverty by providing selfemployment opportunities.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
2. Which of the following statements about the Indian Economy is correct ?
(A) Indian economy is as developed as that of China
(B) About 70% Indians are involved in some type of selfemployment and are the owners of some or the other micro or small enterprise
(C) In India single biggest employment is agriculture and allied activities
(D) About 48% Indian workforce is employed in foreign countries or in organizations assisted by foreign capital
(E) None of these
Ans : (C)
3. Which of the following is/are correct about the problems of Indian Agriculture ?
1. Large agricultural subsidies are hampering productivity—enhancing investments.
2. Irrigation infrastructure is in bad shape and needs immediate improvement.
3. Frequent takeovers of fertile land by private companies and multinationals to launch big business complexes.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 1 and 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
4. As per news in various journals, many banks have failed to achieve agri-loan target fixed by the RBI for the year 2010-11. What was the target fixed for the year ?
(A) 10%
(B) 15%
(C) 18%
(D) 24%
(E) 30%
Ans : (C)
5. Which of the following statements about Agro and Allied activities is not correct ?
(A) Farmers do not get adequate credit for purchase of cattle
(B) There is a need to improve breed and genetic characteristics of the cattle folk
(C) India has huge forest cover and also degraded and marshy land which can be used for productive purposes
(D) India is the 10th largest producer of medicinal and aromatic plants. But the products are not of commercial value
(E) Animal husbandry plays an important role in providing sustainability under Rain fed conditions
Ans : (C)
6. Which of the following schemes launched by the Govt. of India aims at enhancing the livelihood security of the people in rural areas by guaranteeing hundred days of employment in a financial year to a rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work ?
(A) TRYSEM
(B) Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana
(C) Kutir Jyoti Scheme
(D) ASHA
(E) MGNREGA
Ans : (E)
7. In some parts of India, farmers face acute distress because of heavy burden of debt from noninstitutional lenders. Who can be called a non-institutional lender ?
(A) Small Banks
(B) Grameen Banks
(C) Credit Cooperative Societies
(D) Micro Finance Institutions
(E) Money Lenders
Ans : (E)
8. The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was introduced with a view of levying how much custom duty for trading any product within the SAARC zone ?
(A) 5%
(B) 4%
(C) 2%
(D) 1%
(E) No custom duty
Ans : (E)
9. Which of the following organisation prepares rural credit plans on annual basis for all districts in India, which in turn from the base for annual credit plans of all rural financial institutions ?
(A) SIDBI
(B) NABARD
(C) RBI
(D) Indian Bank’s Association
(E) CII
Ans : (B)
10. Which of the following is TRUE about the current population trend(s) in India ?
1. Every year India adds more people to the world’s population than any other country.
2. Currently India has a young population which will grow somewhat older largely as a result of decline in fertility.
3. The National Family Planning Programme did not contribute much in controlling fertility rate
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 2
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (D)
11. In economic terms, which of the following factors determine the ‘Individual’s demand’ of a product/commodity ?
1. Price of a commodity.
2. Income of the individual.
3. Utility and quality of a commodity.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 3
(D) Only 1 and 3
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
12. Which of the following terms is used in the field of economics ?
(A) Adiabatic
(B) Bohr Theory
(C) Plasma
(D) Barter System
(E) Viscosity
Ans : (D)
13. “Pascal Lamy calls on trade negotiators to move out of their comfort zones towards agreements”, was the headline in some major newspapers. This news is associated with which of the following organizations/agencies ?
(A) World Trade Organization
(B) International Monetary Fund
(C) World Bank
(D) United Nations Organisations
(E) North Atlantic Treaty Organisation
Ans : (A)
14. Which of the following is not a function of the Planning Commission of India ?
(A) Assessment of the material, capital and human resources of the country
(B) Formulation of plans for the most effective and balanced utilization of country’s resources
(C) Public cooperation in national development
(D) Preparation of annual budget of the country and collection of taxes to raise capital for the implementation of the plans
(E) Determination of stages in which the plan should be carried out
Ans : (D)
15. Which of the following periods represents the period of the first Five Year Plan in India ?
(A) 1948 – 53
(B) 1947 – 52
(C) 1952 – 57
(D) 1950 – 55
(E) 1951 – 56
Ans : (E)
16. Which of the following is the name of the process available to common people to seek court’s intervention in matters of public interest ?
(A) Public Interest Litigation (PIL)
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Ordinance
(D) Residuary power
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
17. India’s foreign policy is based on several principles, one of which is—
(A) Panchsheel
(B) Satyamev Jayate
(C) Live and Let Live
(D) Vasudhaiv Kutumbkam
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
18. As we know thousands of tonnes of foodgrain was washed away in the floods in Haryana and Punjab a few months back. This incident is an example which indicates that there is a scope for improvement in our machinery controlling our—
(A) Mid Day Meal Scheme
(B) Public Distribution System
(C) Food for Work Programme
(D) Village Grain Bank Scheme
(E) Operation Flood Scheme
Ans : (B)
19. President Barack Obama was on a visit to India a few months back. His visit is said to have forged both the nations into a new era of relations. India managed to sign a special agreement with US in which of the following fields/areas as a byproduct of the visit of Obama ?
1. Energy sector and Nuclear energy as US has lifted sanctions on supply of high tech machines.
2. Skill Development Programmes in IT sector in which US has super-specialisation.
3. Training in management of Micro finance Institutions.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) Only 2 and 3
(E) Only 1 and 2
Ans : (A)
20. Many times we read a term ‘Tax Haven’ in various newspapers. What does it mean ?
1. It is a country where certain taxes are levied at a very low rate.
2. It is a country where people can dump their illegal money without any problem.
3. It is a place where foreigners can work without paying any tax on their income.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 2 and 3
(D) Only 1
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (E)
21. As per existing law, what is the minimum per day wages paid to a worker from unorganised sector in India ?
(A) 50
(B) 75
(C) 100
(D) 125
(E) No such law is there
Ans : (C)
22. Who amongst the following was awarded the “Indira Gandhi Peace Prize” for 2010 ?
(A) Ronald Noble
(B) Luiz Inacio Lula D’Silva
(C) Mohammed Elbaradei
(D) Aung San Su Kyi
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
23. Which of the following is not a Poverty Eradication Programme launched by the Govt. of India ?
(A) Swarnjayanti Gram Swarozgar Yojana
(B) Jawahar Gram Samridhi Yojana
(C) National Social Assistance Programme
(D) ADHAR
(E) National Family Benefit Scheme
Ans : (D)
24. According to the World Bank estimate about 40% Indians are living below International Poverty line of US $ —
(A) 1 per day
(B) 1•25 per day
(C) 2 per day
(D) 2•5 per day
(E) 3 per day
Ans : (B)
25. The 10th Trilateral Ministerial Meeting of RIC group was organized in November 2010. Who are the members of the RIC ?
(A) Russia—Iran—China
(B) Russia—India—China
(C) Romania—Iran—Canada
(D) Romania—Israel—Chile
(E) Russia—India—Croatia
Ans : (B)
26. India and Syria recently decided to double their trade in next 2 years. Indian Govt. has decided to export which of the following commodities to Syria ?
(A) Natural gas
(B) Milk
(C) Oil
(D) Wheat
(E) All of these
Ans : (E)
27. India has sanctioned a 26 million grant to which of the following countries for development of tube wells ?
(A) Myanmar
(B) Bangladesh
(C) Nepal
(D) Pakistan
(E) Sri Lanka
Ans : (C)
28. Which of the following is the name of the scheme launched by the Govt. of India for adolescent girls ? (Launched in November 2010)
(A) Swawlamban
(B) SABALA
(C) Aadhar
(D) ASHA
(E) None of these
Ans : (B)
29. Many times we see in financial journals/bulletins a term M3. What is M3 ?
(A) Currency in circulation on a particular day
(B) Total value of the foreign exchange on a particular day
(C) Total value of export credit on a given date
(D) Total value of the tax collected in a year
(E) None of these
Ans : (E)
30. As per news in various newspapers, Govt. has allocated a huge sum of 31,000 crore for ‘RTE’. What is full form of RTE ?
(A) Right of Education
(B) Reforms in Technical Education
(C) Return to Empowerment
(D) Right to Empowerment
(E) Renewable Technology for Energy
Ans : (A)
31. Which of the following is not a major function of the RBI in India ?
(A) Issuance of currency notes
(B) To facilitate external trade and payment and developing a foreign exchange market in India
(C) Maintaining price stability and ensuring adequate flow of credit to productive sectors
(D) Taking loans/credit from World Bank/IMF and ADB etc., and reallocating it for various activities decided by the Govt. of India
(E) Formulation and monitoring the monetary and credit policy
Ans : (C)
32. The RBI has regional offices at various places. At which of the following places it does not have an office ?
(A) Kota
(B) Shimla
(C) Lucknow
(D) Panaji
(E) Guwahati
Ans : (C)
33. Which of the following organizations/agencies has given a US $ 407 billion loan to India to boost up its micro finance services in unbanked areas ?
(A) IMF
(B) World Bank
(C) Bank of Japan
(D) ADB
(E) Jointly by IMF and ADB
Ans : (B)
34. The Prime Minister’s Economic Advisory Council (PMEAC) has projected that the Indian Exports will grow by what percentage during 2010-11 ?
(A) 15%
(B) 18%
(C) 22%
(D) 24%
(E) 28%
Ans : (B)
35. Which of the following organisations/agencies has given the estimate that the India will be third largest FDI recipient in 2010–12 ?
(A) UNCTAD
(B) WTO
(C) World Bank
(D) IMF
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
36. The performance of which of the following industries is considered performance of a core industry ?
(A) Garments
(B) Leather
(C) IT
(D) Oil and Petroleum
(E) Handicrafts
Ans : (D)
37. Who amongst the following is not a recipient of Nobel Prize in economics ?
(A) Peter A. Diamond
(B) Dale T. Mortensen
(C) Amartya Sen
(D) Paul Krugman
(E) Robert G. Edwards
Ans : (E)
38. Basel Committee has given its recommendations on which of the following aspects of banking operations ?
(A) Marketing of bank products
(B) Priority sector lending
(C) Risk Management
(D) Micro financing
(E) All of these
Ans : (C)
39. Which of the following is the rank of India in Human Development Report 2010 prepared by the UNO ?
(A) 99
(B) 100
(C) 115
(D) 119
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
40. Which of the following was/where the key objectives of the RBI’s review of Monetary and Credit Policy 2010-11 which was reviewed again on 2nd November 2010 ?
1. To sustain the anti inflationary thrust.
2. To maintain an interest rate regime consistent with price.
3. To provide extra tax incentives to exporters who were in stress due to market fluctuations.
(A) Only 1
(B) Only 2
(C) Only 1 and 2
(D) All 1, 2 and 3
(E) None of these
Ans : (A)
41. PIIGS is the group of nations falling under—
(A) Euro zone
(B) Asia Pacific
(C) SAARC
(D) NATO
(E) Commonwealth
Ans : (A)
42. Which of the following is/are the preconditions, the IMF has put to provide bail out package to Ireland ?
1. It should gradually lower down unemployment benefits.
2. It should bring down the minimum wages in order to boost employment.
3. It should import some of the crucial commodities from non euro countries as an immediate measure to improve shortage of the same.
(A) Only 1 and 2
(B) Only 2 and 3
(C) Only 1 and 3
(D) Only 1
(E) All 1, 2 and 3
Ans : (B)
43. India is self-sufficient in production of which of the following commodities ?
(A) Edible oil
(B) Milk
(C) Pulses
(D) Natural gas
(E) All of these
Ans : (B)
44. Which of the following is used as a fuel in Nuclear power stations in India ?
(A) Thorium
(B) Copper
(C) Tin
(D) Chromium
(E) All of these
Ans : (A)
45. Which of the following States has taken up the job of improving Dams with the help of the World Bank’s Dam Rehabilitation and Improvement project ?
(A) Kerala
(B) Gujarat
(C) Tamil Nadu
(D) Uttar Pradesh
(E) Guwahati
Ans : (A)
46. Nitish Kumar led National Democratic Alliance won how many seats in recently held assembly elections in Bihar ?
(A) 150
(B) 243
(C) 200
(D) 206
(E) None of these
Ans : (D)
47. Who amongst the following is the author of the book “Development as Freedom” ?
(A) M. S. Swaminathan
(B) C. Rangarajan
(C) Manmohan Singh
(D) Y. V. Reddy
(E) Amartya Sen
Ans : (E)
48. Which of the following terms is used in Finance and Banking ?
(A) Line of Sight
(B) Scattering loss
(C) Revenue
(D) Oscillation
(E) Shielding
Ans : (A)
49. Who amongst the following is a famous economist ?
(A) Richard Dawkins
(B) Alan Greenspan
(C) Vernon Heywood
(D) Olivar Sachs
(E) Stephan Hawking
Ans : (B)
50. Who amongst the following has never held post of the Governor of the RBI ?
(A) C. Rangarajan
(B) L. K. Jha
(C) Manmohan Singh
(D) Bimal Jalan
(E) Usha Thorat
Ans : (E)
Tuesday, June 21, 2011
Current Affairs GK questions India
Current Affairs GK questions India
General Knowledge & Current Affairs Questions and Answers India
Latest GeneralKnowledge and Current Affairs,GK India
1. What was the theme of the 30th International Trade Fair organised from November 14 to 27, 2010 in New Delhi?
(1) Ultra modern technique for efficient use of energy
(2) Clean and energy efficient technology, product and services
(3) Low cost, Energy efficient products and services
(4) Efficient energy and services
Ans. (2)
2. Mario Vargas Liosa, celebrated ___ author, on October 7, 2010, won the Nobel Prize for Literature “for his cartography of structures of power and his trenchant images of the individual’s resistance, revolt, and defeat”.
(1) Peruvian-Spanish
(2) English-French
(3) German-Russian
(4) Czech-Polish
Ans. (1)
3. Microsoft Corporation on October 19, 2010 launched a full online version of its popular office suite of applications, known as
(1)Office24x7
(2) Office 365
(3) MS Smart
(4) Smart Power
Ans. (2)
4. Who is the author of a controversial document, Charter 08, In news in October 2010, which calls for the rapid establishment of a free, democratic, and constitutional country” and an end to one-party rule in China?
(1) Liu Xiaobo
(2) Zheng Jie
(3) Li Fang
(4) Yan Zi
Ans. (1)
5. Who among the following was made Chief Minister of Maharashtra on November 11, 2010 after Ashok Chavan resigned from the post?
(1) Sushil Kumar Shinde
(2) Ajit Paw
(3) Vilasrao Deshmukh
(4) Prithviraj Chavan
Ans. (4)
6. Peter Diamond and Dale Mortensen of the United States and British Cypriot __ won the 2010 Nobel Economics Prize October 11 2010.
(1) Alexander Hawkins
(2) Daniel Montfort
(3) Christopher Pissarides
(4) Richard Bell
Ans. (3)
7. The former Prime Minister of Russia, Victor Chernomyrdin, who steered the Russian economy through its stormy transition in the 1990s, passed away on November 3, 2010. In which year he was appointed Prime Minister of Russia?
(1) 1990
(2) 1991
(3) 1992
(4) 1993
Ans. (3)
8. Jailed political activist Lid Xiaobo was awarded the 2010 Nobel Peace Prize on October 8, 2010, “for his long and non-violent struggle for fundamental human rights’ in __.”
(1) North Korea
(2) Myanmar
(3) China
(4) Malaysia
Ans. (3)
9. Who among the following was not honored with Jamnalal Bajaj Awards on October 28, 2010?
(1) Chewang Norphel
(2) ChunibhaiVaidya
(3) Shakuntala Choudhary
(4) Chetan E Chitnis
Ans. (4)
10. Who, in October 2010, won the 2010 Nobel Prize in chemistry for developing a chemical method that has allowed scientists to test cancer drugs and make thinner computer screens?
(1) Richard Heck
(2) Ei-ichi Negishi
(3) Akira Suzuki
(4) Al of the above
Ans. (4)
11. Who among the following was crowned Miss World 2010 on October 30; 201.0 in Sanya, China?
(1) Emma Wareus
(2) AdrianaVasini
(3) Alexandria Mills
(4) Kaiane Aldorino
Ans. (3)
12. Who among the following grabbed the first gold medal of the 16th Asian Games 2010 in Guangzhou on November 13, 2010?
(1) Wang Mingjuan of China
(2) Yuan Xiaochao of China
(3) Zhu Qianwei of China
(4) Park Tae Hwan of Korea
Ans. (2)
13. Which of the following Public Sector Units was not conferred the coveted Maharatna status on November 16, 2010?
(1) SAIL
(2) ONGC
(3) 1OC
(4) NTPC
Ans. (1)
14. Virdhawal Khade bagged first medal for India in swimming after a gap of____ years in Asian Games on November 16, 2010 in Guangzhou.
(1) 28
(2) 24
(3) 20
(4) 32
Ans. (2)
15. The six month long Shanghai Expo, the biggest world’s fair in history, concluded on October 31, 2010 during which it received record _____ million visitors.
(1) 69
(2) 63
(3) 73
(4) 65
Ans. (3)
16. Union Communications and In formation Broadcasting Minister Andimuthu Raja resigned on November 14, 2010 in the wake of 2G spectrum allocation scam. According to the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General how many licences out of 122, given to such firms which did not fulfil eligibility criteria?
(1) 88
(2) 92
(3) 96
(4) 85
Ans. (4)
17. Who among the following was conferred the France’s highest civilian honour in October2010?
(1) Ritu Beri
(2) D Ramanaidu
(3) Zakir Hussain
(4) AR Rahman
Ans. (1)
18. Russian born British Andre Geim and Konstantin Novoselov of __ University were named joint winners of the 2010 Nobel Prize for Physics on October 5, 2010.
(1) Oxford
(2) Leeds
(3) Manchester
(4) Birmingham
Ans. (3)
General Knowledge & Current Affairs Questions and Answers India
Latest GeneralKnowledge and Current Affairs,GK India
1. What was the theme of the 30th International Trade Fair organised from November 14 to 27, 2010 in New Delhi?
(1) Ultra modern technique for efficient use of energy
(2) Clean and energy efficient technology, product and services
(3) Low cost, Energy efficient products and services
(4) Efficient energy and services
Ans. (2)
2. Mario Vargas Liosa, celebrated ___ author, on October 7, 2010, won the Nobel Prize for Literature “for his cartography of structures of power and his trenchant images of the individual’s resistance, revolt, and defeat”.
(1) Peruvian-Spanish
(2) English-French
(3) German-Russian
(4) Czech-Polish
Ans. (1)
3. Microsoft Corporation on October 19, 2010 launched a full online version of its popular office suite of applications, known as
(1)Office24x7
(2) Office 365
(3) MS Smart
(4) Smart Power
Ans. (2)
4. Who is the author of a controversial document, Charter 08, In news in October 2010, which calls for the rapid establishment of a free, democratic, and constitutional country” and an end to one-party rule in China?
(1) Liu Xiaobo
(2) Zheng Jie
(3) Li Fang
(4) Yan Zi
Ans. (1)
5. Who among the following was made Chief Minister of Maharashtra on November 11, 2010 after Ashok Chavan resigned from the post?
(1) Sushil Kumar Shinde
(2) Ajit Paw
(3) Vilasrao Deshmukh
(4) Prithviraj Chavan
Ans. (4)
6. Peter Diamond and Dale Mortensen of the United States and British Cypriot __ won the 2010 Nobel Economics Prize October 11 2010.
(1) Alexander Hawkins
(2) Daniel Montfort
(3) Christopher Pissarides
(4) Richard Bell
Ans. (3)
7. The former Prime Minister of Russia, Victor Chernomyrdin, who steered the Russian economy through its stormy transition in the 1990s, passed away on November 3, 2010. In which year he was appointed Prime Minister of Russia?
(1) 1990
(2) 1991
(3) 1992
(4) 1993
Ans. (3)
8. Jailed political activist Lid Xiaobo was awarded the 2010 Nobel Peace Prize on October 8, 2010, “for his long and non-violent struggle for fundamental human rights’ in __.”
(1) North Korea
(2) Myanmar
(3) China
(4) Malaysia
Ans. (3)
9. Who among the following was not honored with Jamnalal Bajaj Awards on October 28, 2010?
(1) Chewang Norphel
(2) ChunibhaiVaidya
(3) Shakuntala Choudhary
(4) Chetan E Chitnis
Ans. (4)
10. Who, in October 2010, won the 2010 Nobel Prize in chemistry for developing a chemical method that has allowed scientists to test cancer drugs and make thinner computer screens?
(1) Richard Heck
(2) Ei-ichi Negishi
(3) Akira Suzuki
(4) Al of the above
Ans. (4)
11. Who among the following was crowned Miss World 2010 on October 30; 201.0 in Sanya, China?
(1) Emma Wareus
(2) AdrianaVasini
(3) Alexandria Mills
(4) Kaiane Aldorino
Ans. (3)
12. Who among the following grabbed the first gold medal of the 16th Asian Games 2010 in Guangzhou on November 13, 2010?
(1) Wang Mingjuan of China
(2) Yuan Xiaochao of China
(3) Zhu Qianwei of China
(4) Park Tae Hwan of Korea
Ans. (2)
13. Which of the following Public Sector Units was not conferred the coveted Maharatna status on November 16, 2010?
(1) SAIL
(2) ONGC
(3) 1OC
(4) NTPC
Ans. (1)
14. Virdhawal Khade bagged first medal for India in swimming after a gap of____ years in Asian Games on November 16, 2010 in Guangzhou.
(1) 28
(2) 24
(3) 20
(4) 32
Ans. (2)
15. The six month long Shanghai Expo, the biggest world’s fair in history, concluded on October 31, 2010 during which it received record _____ million visitors.
(1) 69
(2) 63
(3) 73
(4) 65
Ans. (3)
16. Union Communications and In formation Broadcasting Minister Andimuthu Raja resigned on November 14, 2010 in the wake of 2G spectrum allocation scam. According to the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General how many licences out of 122, given to such firms which did not fulfil eligibility criteria?
(1) 88
(2) 92
(3) 96
(4) 85
Ans. (4)
17. Who among the following was conferred the France’s highest civilian honour in October2010?
(1) Ritu Beri
(2) D Ramanaidu
(3) Zakir Hussain
(4) AR Rahman
Ans. (1)
18. Russian born British Andre Geim and Konstantin Novoselov of __ University were named joint winners of the 2010 Nobel Prize for Physics on October 5, 2010.
(1) Oxford
(2) Leeds
(3) Manchester
(4) Birmingham
Ans. (3)
Tuesday, June 14, 2011
General knowledge GK for CLAT EXAM Objective Questions
General knowledge GK for CLAT EXAM Objective Questions
Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) :Free GK test
Current GK Current Affairs general knowledge For CLAT
1. National Law Institute University is located at which of the following places? .
(A) Bangalore
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Bhopal
Ans:-D
2. The title given by the British Government to Mahatma Gandhi, which he surrendered during the Non-Cooperation Movement, was—
(A) Hind Kesari
(B) Kaiser-e-Hind
(C) Rai Bahadur
(D) Rt. Honorable
Ans:-B
3. Which one of the following sites is not included in World Heritage Sites?
(A) Temples of Khajuraho
(B) Sanchi Stup
(C) Bhimbetka Caves
(D) Marble Rocks, Jabalpur
Ans:-D
4. The Indus Valley civilization is —
(A) About ten thousand years old
(B) About seven thousand years old
(C) About five thousand years old
(D) About three thousand years old
Ans:-C
5. At which of the following places did Mahavir s death take place?
(A) Kushinagar
(B) Vaishali
(C) Rajgriha
(D) Pavapuri
Ans:-D
6. What was the original name of Tansen?
(A) Makaranda Pandey
(B) Baj Bahadur
(C) Lal Kalawant
(D) Ramtanu Pandey
Ans:-D
7. Which of the following reformation movement was the first to be started in the 19th century?
(A) Arya Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Prarthana Samaj
(D) Ramakrishna Mission
Ans:-B
8. Who wrote the drama ‘Malati Madhav’?
(A) Bhas
(B) Kalidas
(C) Bhavabhuti
(D) Ban Bhatt
Ans:-C
9. In which year and at which place did Subhash Chandra Bose reorganize the Azad Hind Fauj (also known as Indian National Army)?
(A) l94l ,Berlin
(B) 1942, Tokyo
(C) 1943,Singapore
(D) 1943, Rangoon
Ans:-C
10. Who amongst the following was impeached in England for acts committed as Governor General of India?
(A) Wellesley
(B) William Bentinck
(C) Cornwallis
(D) Warren Hastings
Ans:-D
11. The basic regularity authority for mutual funds and stock markets lies with the —
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Government of India
(C) Stock Exchange
(D) Security and Exchange Board of India
Ans:-D
12. Who, according to the Anti-Defection Act is the final authority to decide whether a member of Lok Sabha has incurred disqualification due to defection?
(A) Speaker
(B)President
(C)Election Commission
(D)High Court
Ans:-A
13. In case of a clash between the laws made by the Centre and a State on subject in the concurrent list —
(A) The State law prevails
(B) The Central law prevails
(C) Both the laws prevail within their respective jurisdiction
(D) The Supreme Court has to intervene to decide
Ans:-B
14. What is the percentage of India’s population to the world population?
(A) 6%
(B) 16%
(C) 26%
(D) 28%
Ans:-B
15. Which of the following novels is not written by Premchand?
(A) Godan
(B) Sevasadan
(C) Chitralekha
(D) Gaban
Ans:-C
16. Name of the two planets which appear as ‘Morning Star’ in the eastern sky and ‘Evening Star’ in the western sky—
(A) Mars and Venus
(B) Jupiter and Mars
(C) Saturn and Uranus
(D) Mercury and Venus
Ans:-D
17. What is the average time taken by sun rays to reach the earth?
(A) 400 seconds
(B) 450 seconds
(C) 500 seconds
(D) 600 seconds
Ans:-C
18. Which of the following is not a viral disease?
(A) Influenza
(B) Small-pox
(C) Diphtheria
(D) Hydrophobia
Ans:-D
19. A person who is born to Indian parents on 1-1-1990 will be eligible for contesting for the membership of Legislative Assembly of his State in—
(A)2008
(B)2009
(C)2010
(D)2015
Ans:-D
20. India ranks in terms of world production of coal.
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Ans:-D
21. Aspirin is—
(A) Methyl salicylate
(B) Ethyl salicylate
(C) Acetyl salicylic acid
(D) Benzoic acid
Ans:-C
22. Where is Shriharikota, the Indian Satellite Launching Centre?
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans:-B
23. Who is the author of the book ‘Two Lives’?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) Anita Nair
(C) Upmanyu Chatterji
(D) Stephen King
Ans:-A
24..With which of the following games is Narain Kartikeyan associated?
(A) Boxing
(B) Billiards
(C) Golf
(D) Motor racing
Ans:-D
25. When cream is separated from milk—
(A) The density of milk increases
(B) The density of milk decreases
(C) The density of milk remains unchanged
(D) It becomes more viscous
Ans:-A
Common Law Admission Test (CLAT) :Free GK test
Current GK Current Affairs general knowledge For CLAT
1. National Law Institute University is located at which of the following places? .
(A) Bangalore
(B) Hyderabad
(C) Chandigarh
(D) Bhopal
Ans:-D
2. The title given by the British Government to Mahatma Gandhi, which he surrendered during the Non-Cooperation Movement, was—
(A) Hind Kesari
(B) Kaiser-e-Hind
(C) Rai Bahadur
(D) Rt. Honorable
Ans:-B
3. Which one of the following sites is not included in World Heritage Sites?
(A) Temples of Khajuraho
(B) Sanchi Stup
(C) Bhimbetka Caves
(D) Marble Rocks, Jabalpur
Ans:-D
4. The Indus Valley civilization is —
(A) About ten thousand years old
(B) About seven thousand years old
(C) About five thousand years old
(D) About three thousand years old
Ans:-C
5. At which of the following places did Mahavir s death take place?
(A) Kushinagar
(B) Vaishali
(C) Rajgriha
(D) Pavapuri
Ans:-D
6. What was the original name of Tansen?
(A) Makaranda Pandey
(B) Baj Bahadur
(C) Lal Kalawant
(D) Ramtanu Pandey
Ans:-D
7. Which of the following reformation movement was the first to be started in the 19th century?
(A) Arya Samaj
(B) Brahmo Samaj
(C) Prarthana Samaj
(D) Ramakrishna Mission
Ans:-B
8. Who wrote the drama ‘Malati Madhav’?
(A) Bhas
(B) Kalidas
(C) Bhavabhuti
(D) Ban Bhatt
Ans:-C
9. In which year and at which place did Subhash Chandra Bose reorganize the Azad Hind Fauj (also known as Indian National Army)?
(A) l94l ,Berlin
(B) 1942, Tokyo
(C) 1943,Singapore
(D) 1943, Rangoon
Ans:-C
10. Who amongst the following was impeached in England for acts committed as Governor General of India?
(A) Wellesley
(B) William Bentinck
(C) Cornwallis
(D) Warren Hastings
Ans:-D
11. The basic regularity authority for mutual funds and stock markets lies with the —
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Government of India
(C) Stock Exchange
(D) Security and Exchange Board of India
Ans:-D
12. Who, according to the Anti-Defection Act is the final authority to decide whether a member of Lok Sabha has incurred disqualification due to defection?
(A) Speaker
(B)President
(C)Election Commission
(D)High Court
Ans:-A
13. In case of a clash between the laws made by the Centre and a State on subject in the concurrent list —
(A) The State law prevails
(B) The Central law prevails
(C) Both the laws prevail within their respective jurisdiction
(D) The Supreme Court has to intervene to decide
Ans:-B
14. What is the percentage of India’s population to the world population?
(A) 6%
(B) 16%
(C) 26%
(D) 28%
Ans:-B
15. Which of the following novels is not written by Premchand?
(A) Godan
(B) Sevasadan
(C) Chitralekha
(D) Gaban
Ans:-C
16. Name of the two planets which appear as ‘Morning Star’ in the eastern sky and ‘Evening Star’ in the western sky—
(A) Mars and Venus
(B) Jupiter and Mars
(C) Saturn and Uranus
(D) Mercury and Venus
Ans:-D
17. What is the average time taken by sun rays to reach the earth?
(A) 400 seconds
(B) 450 seconds
(C) 500 seconds
(D) 600 seconds
Ans:-C
18. Which of the following is not a viral disease?
(A) Influenza
(B) Small-pox
(C) Diphtheria
(D) Hydrophobia
Ans:-D
19. A person who is born to Indian parents on 1-1-1990 will be eligible for contesting for the membership of Legislative Assembly of his State in—
(A)2008
(B)2009
(C)2010
(D)2015
Ans:-D
20. India ranks in terms of world production of coal.
(A) First
(B) Second
(C) Third
(D) Fourth
Ans:-D
21. Aspirin is—
(A) Methyl salicylate
(B) Ethyl salicylate
(C) Acetyl salicylic acid
(D) Benzoic acid
Ans:-C
22. Where is Shriharikota, the Indian Satellite Launching Centre?
(A) Kerala
(B) Andhra Pradesh
(C) Karnataka
(D) Tamil Nadu
Ans:-B
23. Who is the author of the book ‘Two Lives’?
(A) Vikram Seth
(B) Anita Nair
(C) Upmanyu Chatterji
(D) Stephen King
Ans:-A
24..With which of the following games is Narain Kartikeyan associated?
(A) Boxing
(B) Billiards
(C) Golf
(D) Motor racing
Ans:-D
25. When cream is separated from milk—
(A) The density of milk increases
(B) The density of milk decreases
(C) The density of milk remains unchanged
(D) It becomes more viscous
Ans:-A
GK Exam Paper.com
GK Exam Paper.com
Test Your General Knowledge Online Practice Test
General Knowledge Quiz Questions and Answers
1. Who has been called the ‘Father of Green Revolution’ in India?
(A) V. K. R. V. Rao
(B) C. H. Hanumantha Rao
(C) M. S. Swaminathan
(D) M. L. Dantwala
Ans:-C
2. The leading fish producing State of India is—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Kerala
(C) Orissa
(D) West Bengal
Ans:-C
3. Which among the following is not an item of non-plan expenditure of the Central Government?
(A) Defence Expenditure
(B) Payment of Subsidy
(C) Payment of Interest
(D) Allocation for Science & Technology
Ans:-B
4. Fastest growth in recent times has been recorded in which of the following?
(A) Gems and Jewellery
(B) Computer Software
(C) Oil Refining
(D) Steel
Ans:-B
5. The agency which estimates national income of India is—
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Central Statistical Organisation
Ans:-D
6. Who is the custodian of Foreign Exchange- Reserves of India?
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Foreign Affairs Ministry
Ans:-B
7. What is ‘Operation Flood’?
(A) A project to control floods
(B) A project to check deforestation
(C) A project to promote dairying in the country
(D) None of the above
Ans:-C
8. To prevent recurrence of scams in Indian Capital Market, the Government of India has assigned regulatory powers to—
(A) SEBI
(B) RBI
(C) SBI
(D) ICICI
Ans:-A
9. ‘Garibi Hatao’ slogan was transformed into a Plan with the objective of removal of poverty in—
(A) 3rd Five Year Plan
(B) Three Annual Plans
(C) 5th Five Years Plan
(D) 7th Five Year Plan
Ans:-C
10. What is the meaning of ‘Support Price’?
(A) Subsidy paid by government over the price
(B) Minimum selling price
(C) Minimum selling price at which the Government guarantees to purchase
(D) Money paid to farmers in case of drought or floods
Ans:-C
11. Assertion (A): dir agricultural growth rate is small even after proper planning and investment.
Reason (R) : Land reforms have not been carried out upto the mark.
Select your answer from the code given below—
Code:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Ans:-A
12. Assertion (A): The rate of inflation in India has come down in the last three years.
Reason (R) : The country has received large amount of foreign capital during these years.
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Ans:-B
13. The name of the operation which American forces adopted to arrest former President
Saddam Hussain was—
(A) Operation Clear
(B) Operation Victory
(C) Operation Red-cross
(D) Operation Red Don
Ans:-D
14. Among the following the leap year is—
(A) 2004
(B) 1982
(C) 1978
(D) 1998
Ans:-A
15. Which of the following does not belong to the U.N.O.?
(A) F.A.O.
(B) I.L.O.
(C) W.H.O.
(D) ASEAN
Ans:- D
16. Sharjah is located in—
(A) Iraq
(B) Kuwait
(C) Saudi Arabia
(D) U.A.E.
Ans:-D
17. The largest rail route in the world is between—
(A) Buenos Aires to Valparaiso
(B) Cape to Cairo
(C) Leningrad to Vladivostok
(D) Leningrad to Volgograd
Ans:-C
18. 2010 Commonwealth Games were organised in—
(A) Canada
(B) New Zealand
(C) India
(D) Australia
Ans:-C
19. The largest producer of Petroleum in the world is—
(A) China
(B) Iran
(C) Saudi Arabia
(D) U.S.A
Ans:-D
20. Indian Cricketer who has the largest record of winning in foreign land is—
(A) Sunil Gavaskar
(B) Ajit Wadekar
(C) Saurabh Ganguli
(D) Kapil Dev
Ans:-B
21. Which one of the following is Not a nuclear power?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Russia
Ans:-B
22. Which one of the following is Not currently matched?
(A)Corbett National Park — Uttranchal
(B)Kaziranga National Park — Assam
(C)Bandipur National Park —Andhra Pradesh
(D) Nagarhola National Park — Karnataka
Ans:-C
23. Nobel Prizes are awarded by—
(A) Norway Government
(B) Sweden Government
(C) Royal Swedish Academy
(D) Switzerland Government
Ans:-C
24. India’s first satellite launched from Soviet Cosmo Rome was—
(A) Aryabhatta
(B) Bhaskara
(C) Rohini
(D) Apple
Ans:-A
25 Which of the following helps in establishing parenthood?
(A) Gene-therapy
(B) Gene-cloning;
(C) DNA finger printing
(D) DNA recombinant technology
Ans:-C
Test Your General Knowledge Online Practice Test
General Knowledge Quiz Questions and Answers
1. Who has been called the ‘Father of Green Revolution’ in India?
(A) V. K. R. V. Rao
(B) C. H. Hanumantha Rao
(C) M. S. Swaminathan
(D) M. L. Dantwala
Ans:-C
2. The leading fish producing State of India is—
(A) Gujarat
(B) Kerala
(C) Orissa
(D) West Bengal
Ans:-C
3. Which among the following is not an item of non-plan expenditure of the Central Government?
(A) Defence Expenditure
(B) Payment of Subsidy
(C) Payment of Interest
(D) Allocation for Science & Technology
Ans:-B
4. Fastest growth in recent times has been recorded in which of the following?
(A) Gems and Jewellery
(B) Computer Software
(C) Oil Refining
(D) Steel
Ans:-B
5. The agency which estimates national income of India is—
(A) Reserve Bank of India
(B) Planning Commission
(C) Ministry of Finance
(D) Central Statistical Organisation
Ans:-D
6. Who is the custodian of Foreign Exchange- Reserves of India?
(A) Finance Ministry
(B) Reserve Bank of India
(C) State Bank of India
(D) Foreign Affairs Ministry
Ans:-B
7. What is ‘Operation Flood’?
(A) A project to control floods
(B) A project to check deforestation
(C) A project to promote dairying in the country
(D) None of the above
Ans:-C
8. To prevent recurrence of scams in Indian Capital Market, the Government of India has assigned regulatory powers to—
(A) SEBI
(B) RBI
(C) SBI
(D) ICICI
Ans:-A
9. ‘Garibi Hatao’ slogan was transformed into a Plan with the objective of removal of poverty in—
(A) 3rd Five Year Plan
(B) Three Annual Plans
(C) 5th Five Years Plan
(D) 7th Five Year Plan
Ans:-C
10. What is the meaning of ‘Support Price’?
(A) Subsidy paid by government over the price
(B) Minimum selling price
(C) Minimum selling price at which the Government guarantees to purchase
(D) Money paid to farmers in case of drought or floods
Ans:-C
11. Assertion (A): dir agricultural growth rate is small even after proper planning and investment.
Reason (R) : Land reforms have not been carried out upto the mark.
Select your answer from the code given below—
Code:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Ans:-A
12. Assertion (A): The rate of inflation in India has come down in the last three years.
Reason (R) : The country has received large amount of foreign capital during these years.
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true
Ans:-B
13. The name of the operation which American forces adopted to arrest former President
Saddam Hussain was—
(A) Operation Clear
(B) Operation Victory
(C) Operation Red-cross
(D) Operation Red Don
Ans:-D
14. Among the following the leap year is—
(A) 2004
(B) 1982
(C) 1978
(D) 1998
Ans:-A
15. Which of the following does not belong to the U.N.O.?
(A) F.A.O.
(B) I.L.O.
(C) W.H.O.
(D) ASEAN
Ans:- D
16. Sharjah is located in—
(A) Iraq
(B) Kuwait
(C) Saudi Arabia
(D) U.A.E.
Ans:-D
17. The largest rail route in the world is between—
(A) Buenos Aires to Valparaiso
(B) Cape to Cairo
(C) Leningrad to Vladivostok
(D) Leningrad to Volgograd
Ans:-C
18. 2010 Commonwealth Games were organised in—
(A) Canada
(B) New Zealand
(C) India
(D) Australia
Ans:-C
19. The largest producer of Petroleum in the world is—
(A) China
(B) Iran
(C) Saudi Arabia
(D) U.S.A
Ans:-D
20. Indian Cricketer who has the largest record of winning in foreign land is—
(A) Sunil Gavaskar
(B) Ajit Wadekar
(C) Saurabh Ganguli
(D) Kapil Dev
Ans:-B
21. Which one of the following is Not a nuclear power?
(A) China
(B) Japan
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Russia
Ans:-B
22. Which one of the following is Not currently matched?
(A)Corbett National Park — Uttranchal
(B)Kaziranga National Park — Assam
(C)Bandipur National Park —Andhra Pradesh
(D) Nagarhola National Park — Karnataka
Ans:-C
23. Nobel Prizes are awarded by—
(A) Norway Government
(B) Sweden Government
(C) Royal Swedish Academy
(D) Switzerland Government
Ans:-C
24. India’s first satellite launched from Soviet Cosmo Rome was—
(A) Aryabhatta
(B) Bhaskara
(C) Rohini
(D) Apple
Ans:-A
25 Which of the following helps in establishing parenthood?
(A) Gene-therapy
(B) Gene-cloning;
(C) DNA finger printing
(D) DNA recombinant technology
Ans:-C
India Gk Quiz
India Gk Quiz
India General Knowledge Quiz
India Quiz - General Knowledge Quiz on India
1. Which of the following is the accepted definition of Black Money?
(A) It is illegal income
(B) It is secret and undisclosed income
(C) It is the income which cannot be justified
(D)It is the income on which tax has been evaded
Ans:-D
2. India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) is headed by—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Chief of Strategic Forces Command
(D) National Security Advisor
Ans:-A
3. What are ‘Diamond Parks’?
(A) They are national parks located on hill stations in India and developed by Central Ministry of Environment
(B) They are places where petroleum refineries are located
(C) They are industrial centre being developed for encouraging the manufacturing and export of diamonds, synthetic gems and jewellery
(D) They are places where big power projects are located
Ans:-D
4. Who is known as the ‘Father of e-mail’?
(A) Bill Gates
(B) Timothy Bill
(C) Lincoln Geltisberg
(D) Ray Tomlinson
Ans:-C
5. The 2004 Olympic Games were held at—
(A) Busan
(B) Bangkok
(C) Athens
(D) Sydney.
Ans:-C
6. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar - Cricket
(B) Bhai Chung Bhutia - Football
(C) Dhanraj Pillay - Badminton
(D) Mahesh Bhupathi - Tennis
Ans:-C
7. ‘Yuan’ is the currency of—
(A) China
(B) Singapore
(C) South Korea
(D) Poland
Ans:-C
8. SAARC has its permanent Secretariat at—
(A) Kathmandu
(B) Delhi
(C) Dacca
(D) Islamabad
Ans:-A
9. Who was bestowed all the following awards?
1. Nobel Prize
2. Bharat Ratna
3. Magsaysay
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) C.V.Raman
(C) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(D) Mother Teresa
Ans:-C
10. Which of the following African countries is the member of Commonwealth without being a part of former British Empire?
(A) Kenya
(B) Mozambique
(C) Uganda
(D) Zimbabwe
Ans:-B
11. The W.T.O. Headquarters are located at—
(A) Geneva
(B) New York
(C) Paris
(D) Seattle
Ans:-A
12. ‘Ankleshwari’ is place in—
(A) Bihar where oil refinery has been built
(B) Madhya Pradesh known for fertilizer plant
(C) Orissa, universally known for temples
(D) Gujarat where oil has been found recently
Ans:-D
13.. The 2007 Cricket World Cup was held in—
(A) Australia
(B) England
(C) New Zealand
(D) West Indies
Ans:-D
14. Who among the following is the world’s first woman cosmonaut?
(A) Bachendri Pal
(B) Junko Tabei
(C) Valentena Tereshkova
(D) Sally Ride
Ans:-C
15. Who was the 1st woman among the following to become the Prime Minister of a country in the world?
(A)Benazir Bhutto
(B)Indira Gandhi
(C)Margaret Thatcher
(D)Sirimavo Bhandarnaike
Ans:-D
16. The name of the Chicago Physician who wants to clone a human, is—
(A) Carl Feldbaum
(B) David Heed
(C) Dr. Friedman
(D) Dr. Richard Seed
Ans:-D
17. The controversial film ‘FIRE’ was directed by—
(A) Ketan Mehta
(B) Deepa Mehta
(C) Mahesh Bhatt
(D) Meera Nair
Ans:-B
18. The recommendation for uniform rates of sales-tax by all the States was made by—
(A) 10th Finance Commission
(B) Ministry of Finance Govt. of India
(C) Indian Planning Commission
(D) Chelliah Committee
Ans:-D
19. The sick industrial unit in India is one which—
(A) Has incurred cash losses during the current and preceding five financial years
(B) Has accumulated losses equal to or more than its net worth
(C) Has failed to repay three consecutive loan instalments
(D) All the three above
Ans:-D
20. The largest item of expenditure in the current account of the Central Government budget is—
(A) Defence expenditure
(B) Subsidies
(C) Interest payments
(D) Expenditure on social services
Ans:-C
21. Which of the following items is the highest foreign exchange earner in India?
(A) Software
(B) Gems and Jewellery
(C) Tea
(D) Cotton Textiles
Ans:-A
22. ‘Hydrocarbon Vision 2025’ is associated with—
(A) Storage o Petroleum Products
(B) Euro-I & Euro-II vehicles
(C) Green-Houses effect
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
23. Which among the following organisations are responsible for canalising exports and imports of India?
I. Mineral and Metal Trading Corporation
II. Exim Bank
III. State Trading Corporation
IV. Food Corporation of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code:
(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) II and IV
(C) I and III
(D) II, III and IV
Ans:-A
24 Which one of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India?
(A) Issue of notes
(B) Banker’s Bank
(C) Government Bank
(D) Accepting deposits from the public
Ans:-D
25. The maximum tax revenue is received by the Government of India from—
(A) Corporate tax
(B) Income-tax
(C) Union Excise Duty
(D) Import duty
Ans:-C
India General Knowledge Quiz
India Quiz - General Knowledge Quiz on India
1. Which of the following is the accepted definition of Black Money?
(A) It is illegal income
(B) It is secret and undisclosed income
(C) It is the income which cannot be justified
(D)It is the income on which tax has been evaded
Ans:-D
2. India’s Nuclear Command Authority (NCA) is headed by—
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Chief of Strategic Forces Command
(D) National Security Advisor
Ans:-A
3. What are ‘Diamond Parks’?
(A) They are national parks located on hill stations in India and developed by Central Ministry of Environment
(B) They are places where petroleum refineries are located
(C) They are industrial centre being developed for encouraging the manufacturing and export of diamonds, synthetic gems and jewellery
(D) They are places where big power projects are located
Ans:-D
4. Who is known as the ‘Father of e-mail’?
(A) Bill Gates
(B) Timothy Bill
(C) Lincoln Geltisberg
(D) Ray Tomlinson
Ans:-C
5. The 2004 Olympic Games were held at—
(A) Busan
(B) Bangkok
(C) Athens
(D) Sydney.
Ans:-C
6. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(A) Sachin Tendulkar - Cricket
(B) Bhai Chung Bhutia - Football
(C) Dhanraj Pillay - Badminton
(D) Mahesh Bhupathi - Tennis
Ans:-C
7. ‘Yuan’ is the currency of—
(A) China
(B) Singapore
(C) South Korea
(D) Poland
Ans:-C
8. SAARC has its permanent Secretariat at—
(A) Kathmandu
(B) Delhi
(C) Dacca
(D) Islamabad
Ans:-A
9. Who was bestowed all the following awards?
1. Nobel Prize
2. Bharat Ratna
3. Magsaysay
(A) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(B) C.V.Raman
(C) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(D) Mother Teresa
Ans:-C
10. Which of the following African countries is the member of Commonwealth without being a part of former British Empire?
(A) Kenya
(B) Mozambique
(C) Uganda
(D) Zimbabwe
Ans:-B
11. The W.T.O. Headquarters are located at—
(A) Geneva
(B) New York
(C) Paris
(D) Seattle
Ans:-A
12. ‘Ankleshwari’ is place in—
(A) Bihar where oil refinery has been built
(B) Madhya Pradesh known for fertilizer plant
(C) Orissa, universally known for temples
(D) Gujarat where oil has been found recently
Ans:-D
13.. The 2007 Cricket World Cup was held in—
(A) Australia
(B) England
(C) New Zealand
(D) West Indies
Ans:-D
14. Who among the following is the world’s first woman cosmonaut?
(A) Bachendri Pal
(B) Junko Tabei
(C) Valentena Tereshkova
(D) Sally Ride
Ans:-C
15. Who was the 1st woman among the following to become the Prime Minister of a country in the world?
(A)Benazir Bhutto
(B)Indira Gandhi
(C)Margaret Thatcher
(D)Sirimavo Bhandarnaike
Ans:-D
16. The name of the Chicago Physician who wants to clone a human, is—
(A) Carl Feldbaum
(B) David Heed
(C) Dr. Friedman
(D) Dr. Richard Seed
Ans:-D
17. The controversial film ‘FIRE’ was directed by—
(A) Ketan Mehta
(B) Deepa Mehta
(C) Mahesh Bhatt
(D) Meera Nair
Ans:-B
18. The recommendation for uniform rates of sales-tax by all the States was made by—
(A) 10th Finance Commission
(B) Ministry of Finance Govt. of India
(C) Indian Planning Commission
(D) Chelliah Committee
Ans:-D
19. The sick industrial unit in India is one which—
(A) Has incurred cash losses during the current and preceding five financial years
(B) Has accumulated losses equal to or more than its net worth
(C) Has failed to repay three consecutive loan instalments
(D) All the three above
Ans:-D
20. The largest item of expenditure in the current account of the Central Government budget is—
(A) Defence expenditure
(B) Subsidies
(C) Interest payments
(D) Expenditure on social services
Ans:-C
21. Which of the following items is the highest foreign exchange earner in India?
(A) Software
(B) Gems and Jewellery
(C) Tea
(D) Cotton Textiles
Ans:-A
22. ‘Hydrocarbon Vision 2025’ is associated with—
(A) Storage o Petroleum Products
(B) Euro-I & Euro-II vehicles
(C) Green-Houses effect
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
23. Which among the following organisations are responsible for canalising exports and imports of India?
I. Mineral and Metal Trading Corporation
II. Exim Bank
III. State Trading Corporation
IV. Food Corporation of India.
Select the correct answer from the code given below—
Code:
(A) I, II, III and IV
(B) II and IV
(C) I and III
(D) II, III and IV
Ans:-A
24 Which one of the following is not a function of the Reserve Bank of India?
(A) Issue of notes
(B) Banker’s Bank
(C) Government Bank
(D) Accepting deposits from the public
Ans:-D
25. The maximum tax revenue is received by the Government of India from—
(A) Corporate tax
(B) Income-tax
(C) Union Excise Duty
(D) Import duty
Ans:-C
Tuesday, June 7, 2011
gk multiple choice questions with answers
gk multiple choice questions with answers
General Awareness Quiz - Multiple Choice Questions with Answers
General Knowledge Questions and Answers for exams
1. Which of the following taxes are levied by the Govt. of India?
I. Import Duty
II. Entertainment tax
III. Personal Income tax
IV. Stamp Duty
Select the correct answer from the code—
Codes:
(A) Only I and II
(B) Only II and III
(C) Only I and III
(D) Only II and IV
Ans:-C
2. Study the following statements about the Reserve Bank of India and select the correct
answer from the code given below—
I. It is the apex Bank
II. It regulates the money supply
III. It gives loans to business houses
IV. It supervises the operations of NABARD
Codes:
(A) I, II are correct
(B) I, II and III are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) I, II and IV are correct
Ans:-D
3. Largest producer of apples in the world is—
(A) U. S. A.
(B) Japan
(C) France
(D) Italy
Ans:-D
4. The Mediterranean type of climate is characterized by—
(A) Hot summers and wet winters
(B) Warm winters and cold summers
(C) Rain throughout the year
(D) Wet summer and dry winters
Ans:-A
5. Which one of the following rock systems of India is highly metalliferous?
(A) Vindhyan
(B) Gondwana
(C) Dharwar
(D) Tersiary
Ans:-C
6. Which one of the following seas has the highest salinity?
(A)Dead Sea
(B)Berring Sea
(C)Mediterranean Sea
(D)Red Sea
Ans:-A
7. In which of the following states of India, the Hindus constitute the third largest religious community after Christians and Buddhists?
(A) Manipur
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Mizoram
(D) Nagaland
Ans:-C
8. When a ship enters a sea from a river then which of the following statements is true?
(A) It rises a little
(B) It sinks a little
(C) It remains at the same level
(D) It rises or sinks depending on the material it is made of
Ans:-A
9. When does a solar eclipse occur?
(A) When the Moon is between the Sun and the Earth
(B) When the Earth is between the Sun and the Moon
(C) When the Sun is between the Earth and the Moon
(D) When the Sun, Moon and the Earth are not in the same line
Ans:-A
10. Malaria can be treated with a drug extracted from which of the following trees?
(A) Belladonna tree
(B) Cinchona tree
(C) Oak tree
(D) Amaltas tree
Ans:-B
11. To which article of the constitution does the decision of the Supreme Court given in
September 2001 in respect of the former Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu relate?
(A) Article 102
(B) Article 164
(C) Article 243
(D) Article 22
Ans:-B
12. For which film has Mira Nair received the ‘Golden Lion’ award in 2001 at the Venice
International Film Festival?
(A) Hysterical Blindness
(B) Mississippi Masala
(C) Salam Bombay
(D) Monsoon Wedding
Ans:-D
13. What is NCA?
(A) National Capital Area
(B) Nature Conservation Agency
(C) Narmada Control Authority
(D) National College of Aviation
Ans:-A
14. For which name of rice had an American company got the patent of Basmati rice?
(A) Basmati
(B) Ricetek
(C) Texmati
(D) None of these
Ans:-B
15. What is the name of the book written by the famous French writer
Dominique Lapierre?
(A) Bhopal Express
(B) The Bhopal Midnight
(C) The Twelve o’clock Tragedy in Bhopal
(D) It was Five Past Midnight in3hopal
Ans:-D
16. What does the 91St constitution amendment bill, deal with?
(A) Freezing the number of seats of Lok Sabha only
(B) Freezing the number of Lok Sabha and State Assembly seats upto the year 2026
(C) Removal of the present limit on these seats
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
17. Raising the height of which dam, was opposed by the Narmada Bachao Andolan?
(A) Indira Sagar (M.P.)
(B) Omkareshwar (M.P.)
(C) Sardar Sarovar (Gujarat)
(D) None of these
Ans:-C
18. Who is known as Britain’s ‘Iron Lady’?
(A) Queen Elizabeth
(B) Margaret Thatcher
(C) Late Princess Diana
(D) Queen Victoria
Ans:-B
19. With which game is the ‘Uber Cup’associated?
(A) Badminton
(B) Cricket
(C) Football
(D) Volleyball
Ans:-A
20. What is the colour of the ring representing Asian continent in the emblem of the
Olympics?
(A) Green
(B) Blue
(C) Red
(D) Yellow
Ans:-A
21. Where did India win its first Gold Medal in the Olympics?
(A) Berlin
(B) Rome
(C) Amsterdam
(D) London
Ans:-A
22. What is the name of the athlete who refused the national level Arjuna Award for life time achievement in sports?
(A) Malkhan Singh
(B) Milkha Singh
(C) Vivek Singh
(D) None of these
Ans:-B
23. When did Asian games start in India?
(A) 1948
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) None of these
Ans:-D
24. When was the National Cadet Corps (N.C.C.) constituted?
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1956
(D) None of these
Ans:-A
25. What was the targeted average annual growth rate for the Ninth Five-Year Plan?
(A) 7%
(B) 6.5%
(C) 8%
(D) 9%
Ans:-C
General Awareness Quiz - Multiple Choice Questions with Answers
General Knowledge Questions and Answers for exams
1. Which of the following taxes are levied by the Govt. of India?
I. Import Duty
II. Entertainment tax
III. Personal Income tax
IV. Stamp Duty
Select the correct answer from the code—
Codes:
(A) Only I and II
(B) Only II and III
(C) Only I and III
(D) Only II and IV
Ans:-C
2. Study the following statements about the Reserve Bank of India and select the correct
answer from the code given below—
I. It is the apex Bank
II. It regulates the money supply
III. It gives loans to business houses
IV. It supervises the operations of NABARD
Codes:
(A) I, II are correct
(B) I, II and III are correct
(C) II and III are correct
(D) I, II and IV are correct
Ans:-D
3. Largest producer of apples in the world is—
(A) U. S. A.
(B) Japan
(C) France
(D) Italy
Ans:-D
4. The Mediterranean type of climate is characterized by—
(A) Hot summers and wet winters
(B) Warm winters and cold summers
(C) Rain throughout the year
(D) Wet summer and dry winters
Ans:-A
5. Which one of the following rock systems of India is highly metalliferous?
(A) Vindhyan
(B) Gondwana
(C) Dharwar
(D) Tersiary
Ans:-C
6. Which one of the following seas has the highest salinity?
(A)Dead Sea
(B)Berring Sea
(C)Mediterranean Sea
(D)Red Sea
Ans:-A
7. In which of the following states of India, the Hindus constitute the third largest religious community after Christians and Buddhists?
(A) Manipur
(B) Meghalaya
(C) Mizoram
(D) Nagaland
Ans:-C
8. When a ship enters a sea from a river then which of the following statements is true?
(A) It rises a little
(B) It sinks a little
(C) It remains at the same level
(D) It rises or sinks depending on the material it is made of
Ans:-A
9. When does a solar eclipse occur?
(A) When the Moon is between the Sun and the Earth
(B) When the Earth is between the Sun and the Moon
(C) When the Sun is between the Earth and the Moon
(D) When the Sun, Moon and the Earth are not in the same line
Ans:-A
10. Malaria can be treated with a drug extracted from which of the following trees?
(A) Belladonna tree
(B) Cinchona tree
(C) Oak tree
(D) Amaltas tree
Ans:-B
11. To which article of the constitution does the decision of the Supreme Court given in
September 2001 in respect of the former Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu relate?
(A) Article 102
(B) Article 164
(C) Article 243
(D) Article 22
Ans:-B
12. For which film has Mira Nair received the ‘Golden Lion’ award in 2001 at the Venice
International Film Festival?
(A) Hysterical Blindness
(B) Mississippi Masala
(C) Salam Bombay
(D) Monsoon Wedding
Ans:-D
13. What is NCA?
(A) National Capital Area
(B) Nature Conservation Agency
(C) Narmada Control Authority
(D) National College of Aviation
Ans:-A
14. For which name of rice had an American company got the patent of Basmati rice?
(A) Basmati
(B) Ricetek
(C) Texmati
(D) None of these
Ans:-B
15. What is the name of the book written by the famous French writer
Dominique Lapierre?
(A) Bhopal Express
(B) The Bhopal Midnight
(C) The Twelve o’clock Tragedy in Bhopal
(D) It was Five Past Midnight in3hopal
Ans:-D
16. What does the 91St constitution amendment bill, deal with?
(A) Freezing the number of seats of Lok Sabha only
(B) Freezing the number of Lok Sabha and State Assembly seats upto the year 2026
(C) Removal of the present limit on these seats
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
17. Raising the height of which dam, was opposed by the Narmada Bachao Andolan?
(A) Indira Sagar (M.P.)
(B) Omkareshwar (M.P.)
(C) Sardar Sarovar (Gujarat)
(D) None of these
Ans:-C
18. Who is known as Britain’s ‘Iron Lady’?
(A) Queen Elizabeth
(B) Margaret Thatcher
(C) Late Princess Diana
(D) Queen Victoria
Ans:-B
19. With which game is the ‘Uber Cup’associated?
(A) Badminton
(B) Cricket
(C) Football
(D) Volleyball
Ans:-A
20. What is the colour of the ring representing Asian continent in the emblem of the
Olympics?
(A) Green
(B) Blue
(C) Red
(D) Yellow
Ans:-A
21. Where did India win its first Gold Medal in the Olympics?
(A) Berlin
(B) Rome
(C) Amsterdam
(D) London
Ans:-A
22. What is the name of the athlete who refused the national level Arjuna Award for life time achievement in sports?
(A) Malkhan Singh
(B) Milkha Singh
(C) Vivek Singh
(D) None of these
Ans:-B
23. When did Asian games start in India?
(A) 1948
(B) 1951
(C) 1952
(D) None of these
Ans:-D
24. When was the National Cadet Corps (N.C.C.) constituted?
(A) 1948
(B) 1950
(C) 1956
(D) None of these
Ans:-A
25. What was the targeted average annual growth rate for the Ninth Five-Year Plan?
(A) 7%
(B) 6.5%
(C) 8%
(D) 9%
Ans:-C
Monday, June 6, 2011
MP GK Objective questions
MP GK Objective questions
GK Current Affairs Objective General Knowledge MP
Madhya Pradesh MP General Knowledge Quiz
1. Which of the following sports-persons has participated in the Olympics?
(A) Narendra Hirwani
(B) Ashok Patel
(C) Aslam Sher Khan
(D) Prakash Saini
Ans:-C
2. In which district of Madhya Pradesh is one of the regional laboratories of Forest Research Institute, Dehradun Located?
(A) Betul
(B)Jabalpur
(C) Indore
(D) Mandla
Ans:-B
3. How many districts of M.P. at present are categorised as ‘developed districts’ in terms of the categorisation done in 1990?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 3
(D) 7
Ans:-A
4. Which district of M.P. has the least area under the Paddy Crop?
(A) Balaghat
(B) Morena
(C) Indore
(D) Katni
Ans:-B
5. Approximately what percentage of the country’s total managanese is extracted in
Madhya Pradesh?
(A) 70%
(B) 20%
(C) 50%
(D) 80%
Ans:-C
6. Which poet is regarded as the first poet of the ‘Riti’ period of Hindi poetry?
(A) Padmakar
(B) Keshav Das
(C) Bhushan
(D) Ghananand
Ans:-B
7. After the coming into existence of Chhattisgarh State, in which district of Madhya Pradesh is the number of electrified villages the least?
(A) Sheopur
(B) Dindori
(C) Umaria
(D) Harda
Ans:-D
8. In which district of M.P. is the percentage of the gross irrigated area to the gross sown area the smallest?
(A) Sidhi
(B) Shahdol
(C) Dindori
(D) Mandla
Ans:-A
9. Which district has the lowest literacy in M.P. according to the 1991 census?
(A) Sheopur
(B) Jhabua
(C) Badwani
(D) Sidhi
Ans:-B
10. When was the ‘Pani Roko Abhiyan’ started in Madhya Pradesh?
(A) 3rd February, 2001
(B) 2nd October, 2000
(C) 7th May, 2001
(D) None of these
Ans:-C
11. When was Shri Prakash Chandra Sethi, , made the Chief Minister of
Madhya Pradesh for the first time?
(A) 1975
(B) 1971
(C) 1969
(D) 1974
Ans:-B
12. In the forests of Madhya Pradesh, there is wide-spread damage, due to borer. In which tree specie has the damage occurred?
(A) Bija
(B) Teak
(C) Sal
(D) Arjun
Ans:-B
13. The river Chambal flows in the following states
(A) M.P., U.P., Orissa
(B) M.P., Rajasthan, Gujarat
(C) M.P., U.P., Bihar
(D) M.P., U.P., Rajasthan
Ans:-B
14. One out of the following dynasties does not belong to M.P.—
(A) Parmar
(B) Kaichuri
(C) Chandela
(D) Pratihar
Ans:-D
15. What is the position with respect to powers of contempt available to Lokayukta and Uplokayukta of M.P. similar to the powers of the High Court?
(A) The Powers have been given
(B) The matter is under consideration
(C) The powers have not been given
(D) There are no such proposals
Ans:-A
16. For which purpose out of the following was the ‘Lohani Committee’ constituted in M.P.?
(A) For area division between M.P. and Chhattisgarh
(B) For recommending sources of finance for the Panchayats
(C) For division of Government employees between M.P. and Chhattisgarh
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
17. Who was the Chief Minister of M.P. when Phoolan Devi surrendered?
(A) Motilal Vora
(B) Digvijay Singh
(C) Shyamacharan Shukla
(D) Arjun Singh
Ans:-D
18. Where is the Hasedo-Bango Project located?
(A) M.P.
(B) Assam
(C) Kerala
(D) Chhattisgarh
Ans:-A
19. Which three Indian states were bifurcated to create 3 new states in India?
(A) Orissa, M.P., Bihar
(B) Bihar, M.P., U.P.
(C) M.P., Rajasthan, Bihar
(D) U.P., M.P., West Bengal
Ans:-B
20. Which of the following districts of M.P. is the smallest in terms of population?
(A) Datia
(B) Umaria
(C) Dindori
(D) Harda
Ans:-D
21. What is ‘Gyandoot Scheme’ which was started in the Dhar district of M.P.?
(A) A Village Education Scheme
(B) A series of discourses of Swami Chinmayanand on Gita
(C) A project connected with the modem information technology
(D) A general knowledge competition
Ans:-A
22. Rajghat dam is a joint project of—
(A) U.P. and M.P.
(B) M.P. and Rajasthan
(C) M.P. and Gujarat
(D) M.P. and Chhattisgarh
Ans:-A
23. Which of the following alternatives corresponds to the percentage of the forest area of M.P. to the state’s total geographical area?
(A) 40%
(B) 23.76%
(C) 32.95%
(D) None of these
Ans:-D
24. Which state is first in producing Tendu leaves?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Orissa
(C) M.P.
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans:-C
25. The State which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is —
(A) Bihar
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans:-D
GK Current Affairs Objective General Knowledge MP
Madhya Pradesh MP General Knowledge Quiz
1. Which of the following sports-persons has participated in the Olympics?
(A) Narendra Hirwani
(B) Ashok Patel
(C) Aslam Sher Khan
(D) Prakash Saini
Ans:-C
2. In which district of Madhya Pradesh is one of the regional laboratories of Forest Research Institute, Dehradun Located?
(A) Betul
(B)Jabalpur
(C) Indore
(D) Mandla
Ans:-B
3. How many districts of M.P. at present are categorised as ‘developed districts’ in terms of the categorisation done in 1990?
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 3
(D) 7
Ans:-A
4. Which district of M.P. has the least area under the Paddy Crop?
(A) Balaghat
(B) Morena
(C) Indore
(D) Katni
Ans:-B
5. Approximately what percentage of the country’s total managanese is extracted in
Madhya Pradesh?
(A) 70%
(B) 20%
(C) 50%
(D) 80%
Ans:-C
6. Which poet is regarded as the first poet of the ‘Riti’ period of Hindi poetry?
(A) Padmakar
(B) Keshav Das
(C) Bhushan
(D) Ghananand
Ans:-B
7. After the coming into existence of Chhattisgarh State, in which district of Madhya Pradesh is the number of electrified villages the least?
(A) Sheopur
(B) Dindori
(C) Umaria
(D) Harda
Ans:-D
8. In which district of M.P. is the percentage of the gross irrigated area to the gross sown area the smallest?
(A) Sidhi
(B) Shahdol
(C) Dindori
(D) Mandla
Ans:-A
9. Which district has the lowest literacy in M.P. according to the 1991 census?
(A) Sheopur
(B) Jhabua
(C) Badwani
(D) Sidhi
Ans:-B
10. When was the ‘Pani Roko Abhiyan’ started in Madhya Pradesh?
(A) 3rd February, 2001
(B) 2nd October, 2000
(C) 7th May, 2001
(D) None of these
Ans:-C
11. When was Shri Prakash Chandra Sethi, , made the Chief Minister of
Madhya Pradesh for the first time?
(A) 1975
(B) 1971
(C) 1969
(D) 1974
Ans:-B
12. In the forests of Madhya Pradesh, there is wide-spread damage, due to borer. In which tree specie has the damage occurred?
(A) Bija
(B) Teak
(C) Sal
(D) Arjun
Ans:-B
13. The river Chambal flows in the following states
(A) M.P., U.P., Orissa
(B) M.P., Rajasthan, Gujarat
(C) M.P., U.P., Bihar
(D) M.P., U.P., Rajasthan
Ans:-B
14. One out of the following dynasties does not belong to M.P.—
(A) Parmar
(B) Kaichuri
(C) Chandela
(D) Pratihar
Ans:-D
15. What is the position with respect to powers of contempt available to Lokayukta and Uplokayukta of M.P. similar to the powers of the High Court?
(A) The Powers have been given
(B) The matter is under consideration
(C) The powers have not been given
(D) There are no such proposals
Ans:-A
16. For which purpose out of the following was the ‘Lohani Committee’ constituted in M.P.?
(A) For area division between M.P. and Chhattisgarh
(B) For recommending sources of finance for the Panchayats
(C) For division of Government employees between M.P. and Chhattisgarh
(D) None of the above
Ans:-B
17. Who was the Chief Minister of M.P. when Phoolan Devi surrendered?
(A) Motilal Vora
(B) Digvijay Singh
(C) Shyamacharan Shukla
(D) Arjun Singh
Ans:-D
18. Where is the Hasedo-Bango Project located?
(A) M.P.
(B) Assam
(C) Kerala
(D) Chhattisgarh
Ans:-A
19. Which three Indian states were bifurcated to create 3 new states in India?
(A) Orissa, M.P., Bihar
(B) Bihar, M.P., U.P.
(C) M.P., Rajasthan, Bihar
(D) U.P., M.P., West Bengal
Ans:-B
20. Which of the following districts of M.P. is the smallest in terms of population?
(A) Datia
(B) Umaria
(C) Dindori
(D) Harda
Ans:-D
21. What is ‘Gyandoot Scheme’ which was started in the Dhar district of M.P.?
(A) A Village Education Scheme
(B) A series of discourses of Swami Chinmayanand on Gita
(C) A project connected with the modem information technology
(D) A general knowledge competition
Ans:-A
22. Rajghat dam is a joint project of—
(A) U.P. and M.P.
(B) M.P. and Rajasthan
(C) M.P. and Gujarat
(D) M.P. and Chhattisgarh
Ans:-A
23. Which of the following alternatives corresponds to the percentage of the forest area of M.P. to the state’s total geographical area?
(A) 40%
(B) 23.76%
(C) 32.95%
(D) None of these
Ans:-D
24. Which state is first in producing Tendu leaves?
(A) Maharashtra
(B) Orissa
(C) M.P.
(D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans:-C
25. The State which has the largest number of seats reserved for the Scheduled Tribes in the Lok Sabha is —
(A) Bihar
(B) Gujarat
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Madhya Pradesh
Ans:-D
General Knowledge previous paper Uttaranchal C. J. Examination, 2002
General Knowledge previous paper Uttaranchal C. J. Examination, 2002
PCS Civil Judge - Uttarakhand (Pre.) Exam Solved GK
Previous Year Uttarakhand P.C.S. (J) (Pre.) Exam Solved objective test
1. The theory of basic structure of the Constitution was propounded in—
(A) Indira Nehru Gandhi V/s Raj Narain
(B) I. C. Golakhnath V/s State of Punjab
(C) Kesavanand Bharati V/s State bf Kerala
(D) Maneka Gandhi V/s Union of India
Ans:-C
2. The President of India is elected by—
1. All members of Parliament.
2. Elected members of L Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
3. Elected members f the State Legislative Assemblies including National Capital
Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Pondicherry.
4. All members of State Legislative Assemblies.
Select the correct answer using the bode given below—
Code:
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans:-B
3. Which of the following combination correctly matched?
1. Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Art. 136
2. Special leave of appeal by the Supreme Court. Art. 133
3. Right to enforce Fundamental Rights only. Art. 32
4. Ordinance making power of the Governor. Art. 123
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Code:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans:-C
4. Cauvery river water sharing dispute concerns the State of—
(A) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
(B) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Gujarat
(D) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Pondicherry
Ans:-D
5. Rwanda International Criminal Tribunal has been established as per—
(A) A Resolution of the General Assembly
(B) Direction of the Secretary General
(C) Ruling of the International Court of Justice
(D) A Resolution of the Security Council
Ans:-D
6. “A State is and becomes an international person by recognition only” is claimed by—
(A) Declaratory theory
(B) Constitutive theory
(C) Evidentiary theory
(D) Napoleon
Ans:-B
7. The International Court of Justice is to be located at—
(A) Rome
(B) New York
(C) The Hague
(D) Geneva
Ans:-C
8. Which one of the following is NOT the function of the Economic and Social Council?
(A) Promotion of economic and social development
(B) Promotion of better standards of human welfare
(C) Supervision and control of the functions of specialised agencies
(D) Observance of human rights and fundamental freedoms
Ans:-D
9. Jus Cogens denotes—
(A) Superiority of States
(B) Dominance of U.S.A. over other States
(C) Premptory norm of International Law
(D) Superiority of United Nations
Ans:-C
10. With a view to give effect to an International Agreement, Par1iamer enacts a law on a subject enumerated in State list without consulting the affected States. The law—
(A) Is invalid as it encroaches upon exclusive powers of State Legislatures
(B) Shall become invalid only to the extent of conflict with State law which the State may make in future
(C) Is fully valid as Parliament is empowered to make such a law in order to give effect to an International Agreement; even though it encroaches upon State’s exclusive power of legislation?
(D) Is null and void
Ans:-C
11. “Succession of Government” means change of—
(A) External sovereignty
(B) Internal sovereignty through constitutional or revolutionary processes
(C)Prime Minister
(D)The administrative system
Ans:-B
12. “Dualism” denotes that International law and State law—
(A) Represent two entirely distinct legal systems
(B) Are concomitant aspects of the one system-law in general?
(C) Are not enforceable
(D) Are not binding
Ans:-A
13. Inspite of the fact that Veto is inconsistent with the principle of sovereign equality of all members, Veto is vested with permanent members of U.N. for— -
(A) Striking a balance between super powers
(B) Maintaining international peace and security
(C) Political reasons
(D) Obstructing the power of non-permanent members of the Security Council
Ans:-B
14. Article 21 of the Constitution of India incorporates the right to “Doctor’s assistance.” In which of the following cases this was decided?
(A) Charles Sobhraj V/s Supdt. Of Central Jail
(B) Hoskot V/s State of Maharashtra
(C) Sunil Batra V/s Delhi Administration
(D) Parmanand Katara V/s Union of India
Ans:-D
15. In which of the following cases the doctrine of “prospective over-ruling” was applied?
(A) Shankari Prasad V/s Union of India
(B) Sajjan Singh V/s State of Rajasthan
(C) I. C. Golaknath V/s State of Punjab
(D) Kesavanand Bharati V/s State of Kerala
Ans:-C
16. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India gives power to the
Election Commission of India to “Superintendence, direction and control” of elections?
(A) Article 324
(B) Article 325
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 327
Ans:-A
17. Advertisement is a “Commercial Speech” was laid down in—
(A) Humdard Dawakhana V/s Union of India
(B) Express Newspapers (P) Ltd. V/s Union of India
(C) Bennet Coleman and Co. V/s Union of India
(D) Tata Press Ltd. V/s Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd.
Ans:-D
18. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 was adopted by—
(A) The Security Council
(B) The General Assembly
(C) The General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council
(D) Economic and Social Council on the recommendation of the Security Council
Ans:-B
19. The tenure of the Judges of International
Court of Justice is—
(A) Three years
(B) Five years
(C) Seven years
(D) Nine years
Ans:-D
20. The National Human Rights Commission was established in India on—
(A) 27th September, 1993
(B) 18th December, 1993
(C) 1st January, 1994
(D) 2nd October, 1993
Ans:-A
21. Which one of the following organisations is directly related to the Child Welfare?
(A) UNESCO
(B) ILO
(C) UNICEF
(D) WTO
Ans:-C
22. Who is said to be “The Father of Modern International Law”?
(A) Gentilis
(B) Grotius
(C) Lauterpacht
(D) Thomas Rutherforth
Ans:-B
23. Who said that “International Law is the vanishing point of Jurisprudence”?
(A) Austin
(B) Salmond
(C) Holland
(D) Oppenheim
Ans:-C
24. Who amongst the following was member of the International Court of Justice?
(A) Justice J.S. Verma
(B) Dr. Nagendra Singh
(C) Justice P.N. Bhagati
(D) Justice Dr. A.S. Anand
Ans:-B
25. The first Secretary General of the United Nations was—
(A) Dag Hammarskjöld
(B) Kurt Waldheim
(C) U. Thant
(D) Trigve Lie
Ans:-D
26. The United Nations Day is celebrated every year on—
(A) 26th January
(B) 24th October
(C) 26th November
(D) 10th December
Ans:-B
27. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the U.N. General Assembly on—
(A) l0th December, 1945
(B) 10th December, 1946
(C) 10th December, 1948
(D) 26th October, 1945
Ans:-C
28. In India ‘Law Day’ is celebrated every year on—
(A) 5th April
(B) 5th July
(C) 26th November
(D) 10th December
Ans:-C
29. Which one of the following is a third generation Human Right?
(A) Right to work
(B) Right to education
(C) Right to freedom of religion
(D) Right to development
Ans:-D
30. The International Court of Justice consists of—
(A) The President, the Vice-President and 13 other members
(B) The President, Vice-President and 14 other members
(C) The President, Vice-President and 15 other members
(D) The President and 15 other members
Ans:-A
31. Which one is a neutralised State?
(A) Austria
(B) Australia
(C) Canada
(D) India
Ans:-A
32. In the appointment of a Supreme Court Judge, primacy is given to the opinion of—
(A) The Chief Justice of India
(B) Union Law Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India and other three senior Judges of the Supreme Court
(D) The Prime Minister
Ans:-A
33. The quorum of the International Court of Justice is—
(A) 15 Judges
(B) 8 Judges
(C) 9 Judges
(D) 5 Judges
Ans:-C
34. The writ of Mandamus is issued to enforce—
(A) Arbitrary actions
(B) Mandatory duties
(C) Discretionary powers
(D) None of the above
Ans:-
35. Assertion (A): Article 21 expressly incorporates the concept of due process of law.
Reason (R) : Due process of law is an attribute of liberty
Choose the correct answer using the code given below—
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-A
36. Indicate the sequence in which the following were established—
1. International Labour Organisation
2. International War Crimes Tribunal for former Yugoslavia
3. Nuremberg Military Tribunal
4. International Court of Justice
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Code:
(A) 1, 2, 4 and 3
(B) 1, 3, 4 and 2
(C) l, 3, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 1, 3 and 4
Ans:-B
37. ‘Core Crimes’ listed in the Statute of the International Criminal Court are—
(A) 20
(B) 10
(C) 4
(D)8
Ans:-C
38. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to—
(A) The Parliament
(B) The Lok Sabha
(C) The Rajya Sabha
(D) The Prime Minister
Ans:-B
39. The question of disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha on the ground of defection is determined by—
(A) The Deputy Speaker
(B) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A member elected by Lok Sabha
(D) The President of India
Ans:-C
40. Who among the following has primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security?
(A) The Secretary General
(B) The Security Council
(C) The General Assembly
(D) The International Court of Justice
Ans:-B
41. ‘CHOGM 2000’ with 51 members Conference was held at—
(A) Kualam
(B) Copenhagen
(C) Harare
(D) Dublin
Ans:-A
42. The rules of neutrality were codified in—
(A) 1856 and 1899
(B) 1868 and 1900
(C) 1856 and 1907
(D) 1899 and 1930
Ans:-C
43. Assertion (A) : In principle the members of the United Nations cannot remain neutral.
Reason (R) : A permanent member of the Security Council who abstains from voting can remain neutral
Choose the correct answer by using the code given below—
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-A
44. Match List-I and List—TI and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists— List-I
(Even)
(a) First Earth Summit
(b) Protection and Improvement of Human Environment
(c) Second Earth Summit
(d) Kyoto Protocol
List—II
(Year)
1. 1972
2. 1992
3. 1997
4. 2002
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans:-B
45. On assuming office, President D. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam returned the very first Ordinance without his signature. It was related to—
(A) Dissolution of Gujarat Legislative Assembly
(B) Imposition of President’s rule in Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Election reforms as suggested by the Supreme Court
(D) Disinvestment of life Insurance corporation of India
Ans:-C
46. Most of the rights of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights are incorporated in—
(A) Part—III and Part-IV of our Constitution
(B) Part—I and Part—V of our Constitution
(C) Part—VII of our Constitution
(D) Articles 308-311 of our Constitution
Ans:-A
47. Match List-I and List—TI and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists— List-I
(Case)
(a) S. R. Bommai V/s Union of India
(b) P.V. Narsimha Rao V/s State
(c) A.D.M. Jabalpur V/s Shiva Kant Shukla
(d) Lily Thomas V/s Union of India
List-II
(Article of hid. Const. Involved)
1.Art.21
2.Art. 356
3.Art. 105
4. Art. 44
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B ) 1 3 2 4
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans:-C
48. The Supreme Court has traced the right to privacy in—
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 22
Ans:-A
49. The Judges of the International Court of Justice are—
(A) Elected by the General Assembly and the Security Council
(B) Nominated by the International Law Commission
(C) Selected by the Secretary General
(D) Appointed by the Security Council
Ans:-A
50. The Information Technology Act, 2000 has been enacted by our Parliament—
(A) On the basis of a Resolution of the U.N. General Assembly
(B) On the advice of the President of India
(C) As directed by the Supreme Court
(D) On request from the State of Karnataka
Ans:-A
PCS Civil Judge - Uttarakhand (Pre.) Exam Solved GK
Previous Year Uttarakhand P.C.S. (J) (Pre.) Exam Solved objective test
1. The theory of basic structure of the Constitution was propounded in—
(A) Indira Nehru Gandhi V/s Raj Narain
(B) I. C. Golakhnath V/s State of Punjab
(C) Kesavanand Bharati V/s State bf Kerala
(D) Maneka Gandhi V/s Union of India
Ans:-C
2. The President of India is elected by—
1. All members of Parliament.
2. Elected members of L Sabha and Rajya Sabha.
3. Elected members f the State Legislative Assemblies including National Capital
Territory of Delhi and Union Territory of Pondicherry.
4. All members of State Legislative Assemblies.
Select the correct answer using the bode given below—
Code:
(A) 1 and 4
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 2 and 4
(D) 1 and 3
Ans:-B
3. Which of the following combination correctly matched?
1. Advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. Art. 136
2. Special leave of appeal by the Supreme Court. Art. 133
3. Right to enforce Fundamental Rights only. Art. 32
4. Ordinance making power of the Governor. Art. 123
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Code:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Ans:-C
4. Cauvery river water sharing dispute concerns the State of—
(A) Tamil Nadu and Karnataka
(B) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and Kerala
(C) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Gujarat
(D) Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Kerala and Pondicherry
Ans:-D
5. Rwanda International Criminal Tribunal has been established as per—
(A) A Resolution of the General Assembly
(B) Direction of the Secretary General
(C) Ruling of the International Court of Justice
(D) A Resolution of the Security Council
Ans:-D
6. “A State is and becomes an international person by recognition only” is claimed by—
(A) Declaratory theory
(B) Constitutive theory
(C) Evidentiary theory
(D) Napoleon
Ans:-B
7. The International Court of Justice is to be located at—
(A) Rome
(B) New York
(C) The Hague
(D) Geneva
Ans:-C
8. Which one of the following is NOT the function of the Economic and Social Council?
(A) Promotion of economic and social development
(B) Promotion of better standards of human welfare
(C) Supervision and control of the functions of specialised agencies
(D) Observance of human rights and fundamental freedoms
Ans:-D
9. Jus Cogens denotes—
(A) Superiority of States
(B) Dominance of U.S.A. over other States
(C) Premptory norm of International Law
(D) Superiority of United Nations
Ans:-C
10. With a view to give effect to an International Agreement, Par1iamer enacts a law on a subject enumerated in State list without consulting the affected States. The law—
(A) Is invalid as it encroaches upon exclusive powers of State Legislatures
(B) Shall become invalid only to the extent of conflict with State law which the State may make in future
(C) Is fully valid as Parliament is empowered to make such a law in order to give effect to an International Agreement; even though it encroaches upon State’s exclusive power of legislation?
(D) Is null and void
Ans:-C
11. “Succession of Government” means change of—
(A) External sovereignty
(B) Internal sovereignty through constitutional or revolutionary processes
(C)Prime Minister
(D)The administrative system
Ans:-B
12. “Dualism” denotes that International law and State law—
(A) Represent two entirely distinct legal systems
(B) Are concomitant aspects of the one system-law in general?
(C) Are not enforceable
(D) Are not binding
Ans:-A
13. Inspite of the fact that Veto is inconsistent with the principle of sovereign equality of all members, Veto is vested with permanent members of U.N. for— -
(A) Striking a balance between super powers
(B) Maintaining international peace and security
(C) Political reasons
(D) Obstructing the power of non-permanent members of the Security Council
Ans:-B
14. Article 21 of the Constitution of India incorporates the right to “Doctor’s assistance.” In which of the following cases this was decided?
(A) Charles Sobhraj V/s Supdt. Of Central Jail
(B) Hoskot V/s State of Maharashtra
(C) Sunil Batra V/s Delhi Administration
(D) Parmanand Katara V/s Union of India
Ans:-D
15. In which of the following cases the doctrine of “prospective over-ruling” was applied?
(A) Shankari Prasad V/s Union of India
(B) Sajjan Singh V/s State of Rajasthan
(C) I. C. Golaknath V/s State of Punjab
(D) Kesavanand Bharati V/s State of Kerala
Ans:-C
16. Which one of the following Articles of the Constitution of India gives power to the
Election Commission of India to “Superintendence, direction and control” of elections?
(A) Article 324
(B) Article 325
(C) Article 326
(D) Article 327
Ans:-A
17. Advertisement is a “Commercial Speech” was laid down in—
(A) Humdard Dawakhana V/s Union of India
(B) Express Newspapers (P) Ltd. V/s Union of India
(C) Bennet Coleman and Co. V/s Union of India
(D) Tata Press Ltd. V/s Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Ltd.
Ans:-D
18. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights, 1948 was adopted by—
(A) The Security Council
(B) The General Assembly
(C) The General Assembly on the recommendation of the Security Council
(D) Economic and Social Council on the recommendation of the Security Council
Ans:-B
19. The tenure of the Judges of International
Court of Justice is—
(A) Three years
(B) Five years
(C) Seven years
(D) Nine years
Ans:-D
20. The National Human Rights Commission was established in India on—
(A) 27th September, 1993
(B) 18th December, 1993
(C) 1st January, 1994
(D) 2nd October, 1993
Ans:-A
21. Which one of the following organisations is directly related to the Child Welfare?
(A) UNESCO
(B) ILO
(C) UNICEF
(D) WTO
Ans:-C
22. Who is said to be “The Father of Modern International Law”?
(A) Gentilis
(B) Grotius
(C) Lauterpacht
(D) Thomas Rutherforth
Ans:-B
23. Who said that “International Law is the vanishing point of Jurisprudence”?
(A) Austin
(B) Salmond
(C) Holland
(D) Oppenheim
Ans:-C
24. Who amongst the following was member of the International Court of Justice?
(A) Justice J.S. Verma
(B) Dr. Nagendra Singh
(C) Justice P.N. Bhagati
(D) Justice Dr. A.S. Anand
Ans:-B
25. The first Secretary General of the United Nations was—
(A) Dag Hammarskjöld
(B) Kurt Waldheim
(C) U. Thant
(D) Trigve Lie
Ans:-D
26. The United Nations Day is celebrated every year on—
(A) 26th January
(B) 24th October
(C) 26th November
(D) 10th December
Ans:-B
27. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by the U.N. General Assembly on—
(A) l0th December, 1945
(B) 10th December, 1946
(C) 10th December, 1948
(D) 26th October, 1945
Ans:-C
28. In India ‘Law Day’ is celebrated every year on—
(A) 5th April
(B) 5th July
(C) 26th November
(D) 10th December
Ans:-C
29. Which one of the following is a third generation Human Right?
(A) Right to work
(B) Right to education
(C) Right to freedom of religion
(D) Right to development
Ans:-D
30. The International Court of Justice consists of—
(A) The President, the Vice-President and 13 other members
(B) The President, Vice-President and 14 other members
(C) The President, Vice-President and 15 other members
(D) The President and 15 other members
Ans:-A
31. Which one is a neutralised State?
(A) Austria
(B) Australia
(C) Canada
(D) India
Ans:-A
32. In the appointment of a Supreme Court Judge, primacy is given to the opinion of—
(A) The Chief Justice of India
(B) Union Law Minister
(C) Chief Justice of India and other three senior Judges of the Supreme Court
(D) The Prime Minister
Ans:-A
33. The quorum of the International Court of Justice is—
(A) 15 Judges
(B) 8 Judges
(C) 9 Judges
(D) 5 Judges
Ans:-C
34. The writ of Mandamus is issued to enforce—
(A) Arbitrary actions
(B) Mandatory duties
(C) Discretionary powers
(D) None of the above
Ans:-
35. Assertion (A): Article 21 expressly incorporates the concept of due process of law.
Reason (R) : Due process of law is an attribute of liberty
Choose the correct answer using the code given below—
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-A
36. Indicate the sequence in which the following were established—
1. International Labour Organisation
2. International War Crimes Tribunal for former Yugoslavia
3. Nuremberg Military Tribunal
4. International Court of Justice
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
Code:
(A) 1, 2, 4 and 3
(B) 1, 3, 4 and 2
(C) l, 3, 2 and 4
(D) 2, 1, 3 and 4
Ans:-B
37. ‘Core Crimes’ listed in the Statute of the International Criminal Court are—
(A) 20
(B) 10
(C) 4
(D)8
Ans:-C
38. The Council of Ministers is collectively responsible to—
(A) The Parliament
(B) The Lok Sabha
(C) The Rajya Sabha
(D) The Prime Minister
Ans:-B
39. The question of disqualification of the Speaker of Lok Sabha on the ground of defection is determined by—
(A) The Deputy Speaker
(B) The Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) A member elected by Lok Sabha
(D) The President of India
Ans:-C
40. Who among the following has primary responsibility for the maintenance of international peace and security?
(A) The Secretary General
(B) The Security Council
(C) The General Assembly
(D) The International Court of Justice
Ans:-B
41. ‘CHOGM 2000’ with 51 members Conference was held at—
(A) Kualam
(B) Copenhagen
(C) Harare
(D) Dublin
Ans:-A
42. The rules of neutrality were codified in—
(A) 1856 and 1899
(B) 1868 and 1900
(C) 1856 and 1907
(D) 1899 and 1930
Ans:-C
43. Assertion (A) : In principle the members of the United Nations cannot remain neutral.
Reason (R) : A permanent member of the Security Council who abstains from voting can remain neutral
Choose the correct answer by using the code given below—
Code:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans:-A
44. Match List-I and List—TI and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists— List-I
(Even)
(a) First Earth Summit
(b) Protection and Improvement of Human Environment
(c) Second Earth Summit
(d) Kyoto Protocol
List—II
(Year)
1. 1972
2. 1992
3. 1997
4. 2002
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 1 4 3
(C) 1 3 2 4
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans:-B
45. On assuming office, President D. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam returned the very first Ordinance without his signature. It was related to—
(A) Dissolution of Gujarat Legislative Assembly
(B) Imposition of President’s rule in Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Election reforms as suggested by the Supreme Court
(D) Disinvestment of life Insurance corporation of India
Ans:-C
46. Most of the rights of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights are incorporated in—
(A) Part—III and Part-IV of our Constitution
(B) Part—I and Part—V of our Constitution
(C) Part—VII of our Constitution
(D) Articles 308-311 of our Constitution
Ans:-A
47. Match List-I and List—TI and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists— List-I
(Case)
(a) S. R. Bommai V/s Union of India
(b) P.V. Narsimha Rao V/s State
(c) A.D.M. Jabalpur V/s Shiva Kant Shukla
(d) Lily Thomas V/s Union of India
List-II
(Article of hid. Const. Involved)
1.Art.21
2.Art. 356
3.Art. 105
4. Art. 44
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B ) 1 3 2 4
(C) 1 4 3 2
(D) 2 3 1 4
Ans:-C
48. The Supreme Court has traced the right to privacy in—
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 19
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 22
Ans:-A
49. The Judges of the International Court of Justice are—
(A) Elected by the General Assembly and the Security Council
(B) Nominated by the International Law Commission
(C) Selected by the Secretary General
(D) Appointed by the Security Council
Ans:-A
50. The Information Technology Act, 2000 has been enacted by our Parliament—
(A) On the basis of a Resolution of the U.N. General Assembly
(B) On the advice of the President of India
(C) As directed by the Supreme Court
(D) On request from the State of Karnataka
Ans:-A
Sunday, June 5, 2011
Computers objective practice test
Computers objective practice test
Free Online Information Technology Computer Fundamentals exam
Computer Science Objective Questions
1.Which of following is not an open source OS?
(A)Red-Hat
(B) Ubuntu
(C) Vista
(D)Knoppix
2 Measuring Unit of Capacity of Hard drive is ?
(A)GHz
(B) GB
(C) Gwatts
(D)G Newton
3. CAD/CAM is ?
(A)Operating System
(B)Type of Virus usually Trojan
(C)Computer Basic parts
(D)Program
4.Overclocking is done to ?
(A)Hard Disk
(B) processor
(C) OS
(D)Programs
5.While Buying PC Check FSB Speed. FSB Speed is word associated with ?
(A)Hard Disk
(B) Motherboard
(C) RAM
(D)Fan Speed
6. Hyper-threading (HT) is related to ?
(A)Processor
(B)RAM
(C) Mother Board
(D)Hard Disk
7. Intel and AMD are Leaders in
(A)Processor
(B)RAM
(C) Mother Board
(D)Hard Disk
8. IDE (ATA) or SATA interface connect Mother Board with ?
(A)Processor
(B)RAM
(C) Monitor
(D)Hard Disk
9. USB is a type of ?
(A)Processor
(B)Port
(C) Monitor
(D)Program
10 What menu is selected for printing?
(A)Edit
(B)Special
(C) File
(D)Tools
11.The name a user assigns to file is called?
(A)File name
(B)program
(C)record
(D)data
12.Two access properties of an object ,we use mouse to
(A)Left Click
(B)Right Click
(C) Drag
(D)Drop
13 To assess a Main Frame Computer Users normally use
(A)Terminal
(B)PC
(C) Laptop
(D)None of these
14.Web address is a unique address to identify ……… on web
(A)Browser
(B)Link
(C) PDA
(D)Website
15.Optical storage unit is used in modern PC and is known as
(A)Floppy
(B)CD
(C) ROM
(D)RAM
Answers
1 C
2 B
3 D
4 B
5 B
6 A
7 A
8 D
9 B
10 C
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 D
15 B
Free Online Information Technology Computer Fundamentals exam
Computer Science Objective Questions
1.Which of following is not an open source OS?
(A)Red-Hat
(B) Ubuntu
(C) Vista
(D)Knoppix
2 Measuring Unit of Capacity of Hard drive is ?
(A)GHz
(B) GB
(C) Gwatts
(D)G Newton
3. CAD/CAM is ?
(A)Operating System
(B)Type of Virus usually Trojan
(C)Computer Basic parts
(D)Program
4.Overclocking is done to ?
(A)Hard Disk
(B) processor
(C) OS
(D)Programs
5.While Buying PC Check FSB Speed. FSB Speed is word associated with ?
(A)Hard Disk
(B) Motherboard
(C) RAM
(D)Fan Speed
6. Hyper-threading (HT) is related to ?
(A)Processor
(B)RAM
(C) Mother Board
(D)Hard Disk
7. Intel and AMD are Leaders in
(A)Processor
(B)RAM
(C) Mother Board
(D)Hard Disk
8. IDE (ATA) or SATA interface connect Mother Board with ?
(A)Processor
(B)RAM
(C) Monitor
(D)Hard Disk
9. USB is a type of ?
(A)Processor
(B)Port
(C) Monitor
(D)Program
10 What menu is selected for printing?
(A)Edit
(B)Special
(C) File
(D)Tools
11.The name a user assigns to file is called?
(A)File name
(B)program
(C)record
(D)data
12.Two access properties of an object ,we use mouse to
(A)Left Click
(B)Right Click
(C) Drag
(D)Drop
13 To assess a Main Frame Computer Users normally use
(A)Terminal
(B)PC
(C) Laptop
(D)None of these
14.Web address is a unique address to identify ……… on web
(A)Browser
(B)Link
(C) PDA
(D)Website
15.Optical storage unit is used in modern PC and is known as
(A)Floppy
(B)CD
(C) ROM
(D)RAM
Answers
1 C
2 B
3 D
4 B
5 B
6 A
7 A
8 D
9 B
10 C
11 A
12 B
13 A
14 D
15 B
Computer Gk For Punsup Exams
Computer Gk For Punsup Exams
General knowledge computer for punjab stae civil supplies
1.What is the base of octal system
a) 2
b) 8
c) 16
d) 10
Ans:b
2. What is the base of binary system
a) 2
b) 8
c) 16
d) 10
Ans:a
3.What is the base of decimal system
a) 2
b) 8
c) 16
d) 10
Ans:d
4. What is the base of hexadecimal system
a) 2
b) 8
c) 16
d) 10
Ans:c
5. Convert 25 (Base 10) to binary
a) 10010
b) 11001
c) 11110
d) 00111
Ans:b
6. Convert 5210 to binary
a) 100011
b) 110100
c) 111100
d) 000011
Ans:b
7. If one of the inputs is low ,then output is also low in
a) OR
b) EXOR
c) NOR
d) AND
Ans:d
8. If one of the inputs is high ,then output is also high in
a) OR
b) AND
c) EXOR
d) NAND
Ans:a
9. Simplifications of any logic expression by using
a) Vector analysis
b) Boolean algebra
c) matrix analysis
d) None of these
Ans:b
10 Flip flop has
a) one state
b) two states
c) zero state
d) none of these
Ans:b
11. If both inputs are same, then output is “0” in
a) OR
b) AND
c) EXOR
d) NAND
Ans:c
12. RS flip flop is
a) clocked output
b) reset/set flip flop
c) set only
d) reset only
Ans:b
12.In RS Flip flop,R=0,S=0,then output is
a) set
b) reset
c) last value
d) illegal
Ans:c
13. In RS Flip flop,R=0,S=1,then output is
a) set
b) reset
c) last value
d) illegal
Ans:a
14. In RS Flip flop,R=1,S=0,then output is
a) set
b) reset
c) last value
d) illegal
Ans:b
15.. In RS Flip flop,R=1,S=1,then output is
a) set
b) reset
c) last value
d) illegal
Ans:d
16. In clocked RS Flip flop, clock=0,R=0,S=0,then output is
a) set
b)reset
c)last value
d)illegal
Ans:c
17. In clocked RS Flip flop, clock=0,R=0,S=1,then output is
a) set
b)reset
c)no change
d)illegal
Ans:c
18 In clocked RS Flip flop, clock=0,R=1,S=0,then output is
a) no change
b)reset
c)set
d)illegal
Ans:a
19. In D Flip flop, clock=1,D=0,then output is
a)0
b)1
c)last value
d)illegal
Ans:a
20. In D Flip flop, clock=1,D=1,then output is
a)0
b)1
c)last value
d)illegal
Ans:b
21.Register is
a)group of transistors
b) group of diodes
c) group of flip flops
d)none of these
Ans:c
22.Counter is activated by
a) clock
b) flip flop
c) register
d) none of these
Ans:a
23.In asynchronous counter, each filp flop triggered by
a)clock
b)impulse
c)previous flip flop
d)none of these
Ans:c
24. In synchronous counter,each filp flop triggered by
a)clock
b)impulse
c)previous flip flop
d)none of these
Ans:a
25. In asynchronous counter, speed is
a)high
b)very high
c)0
d)limited
Ans:d
General knowledge computer for punjab stae civil supplies
1.What is the base of octal system
a) 2
b) 8
c) 16
d) 10
Ans:b
2. What is the base of binary system
a) 2
b) 8
c) 16
d) 10
Ans:a
3.What is the base of decimal system
a) 2
b) 8
c) 16
d) 10
Ans:d
4. What is the base of hexadecimal system
a) 2
b) 8
c) 16
d) 10
Ans:c
5. Convert 25 (Base 10) to binary
a) 10010
b) 11001
c) 11110
d) 00111
Ans:b
6. Convert 5210 to binary
a) 100011
b) 110100
c) 111100
d) 000011
Ans:b
7. If one of the inputs is low ,then output is also low in
a) OR
b) EXOR
c) NOR
d) AND
Ans:d
8. If one of the inputs is high ,then output is also high in
a) OR
b) AND
c) EXOR
d) NAND
Ans:a
9. Simplifications of any logic expression by using
a) Vector analysis
b) Boolean algebra
c) matrix analysis
d) None of these
Ans:b
10 Flip flop has
a) one state
b) two states
c) zero state
d) none of these
Ans:b
11. If both inputs are same, then output is “0” in
a) OR
b) AND
c) EXOR
d) NAND
Ans:c
12. RS flip flop is
a) clocked output
b) reset/set flip flop
c) set only
d) reset only
Ans:b
12.In RS Flip flop,R=0,S=0,then output is
a) set
b) reset
c) last value
d) illegal
Ans:c
13. In RS Flip flop,R=0,S=1,then output is
a) set
b) reset
c) last value
d) illegal
Ans:a
14. In RS Flip flop,R=1,S=0,then output is
a) set
b) reset
c) last value
d) illegal
Ans:b
15.. In RS Flip flop,R=1,S=1,then output is
a) set
b) reset
c) last value
d) illegal
Ans:d
16. In clocked RS Flip flop, clock=0,R=0,S=0,then output is
a) set
b)reset
c)last value
d)illegal
Ans:c
17. In clocked RS Flip flop, clock=0,R=0,S=1,then output is
a) set
b)reset
c)no change
d)illegal
Ans:c
18 In clocked RS Flip flop, clock=0,R=1,S=0,then output is
a) no change
b)reset
c)set
d)illegal
Ans:a
19. In D Flip flop, clock=1,D=0,then output is
a)0
b)1
c)last value
d)illegal
Ans:a
20. In D Flip flop, clock=1,D=1,then output is
a)0
b)1
c)last value
d)illegal
Ans:b
21.Register is
a)group of transistors
b) group of diodes
c) group of flip flops
d)none of these
Ans:c
22.Counter is activated by
a) clock
b) flip flop
c) register
d) none of these
Ans:a
23.In asynchronous counter, each filp flop triggered by
a)clock
b)impulse
c)previous flip flop
d)none of these
Ans:c
24. In synchronous counter,each filp flop triggered by
a)clock
b)impulse
c)previous flip flop
d)none of these
Ans:a
25. In asynchronous counter, speed is
a)high
b)very high
c)0
d)limited
Ans:d
GK for Indian exams free online information
Which country bought the control of Suez canal in 1875: UK
One barrel of oil is equivalent to how many litres?: 8.16
The town in German legend of the Pied Piper is: hemelin
The company acquired by Tata Sons is:corus
India's first genetically modified crop is: brinjal
The highest judicial organ of UN is: International Court of Justice
The first US Lady to win a public office is: Hillary Clinton
Who said that" sports is war minus the shooting": George Orwell
Nine zero is the headquarter of?: MQM
Who is the biggest private sector lender in India: ICICI bank
Synonym of forestry is: silviculture
A phone directory listing the business: Yellow Pages
Histology is the branch of: biology
Tata Communications was earlier known as: VSNL
According to UN the worst place for kids is: Somalia
The Diagram prize is related to: oddest book title
The language of majority in Belgium is: Dutch
The noble equivalent of prize is in architecture is:pritker prize
One barrel of oil is equivalent to how many litres?: 8.16
The town in German legend of the Pied Piper is: hemelin
The company acquired by Tata Sons is:corus
India's first genetically modified crop is: brinjal
The highest judicial organ of UN is: International Court of Justice
The first US Lady to win a public office is: Hillary Clinton
Who said that" sports is war minus the shooting": George Orwell
Nine zero is the headquarter of?: MQM
Who is the biggest private sector lender in India: ICICI bank
Synonym of forestry is: silviculture
A phone directory listing the business: Yellow Pages
Histology is the branch of: biology
Tata Communications was earlier known as: VSNL
According to UN the worst place for kids is: Somalia
The Diagram prize is related to: oddest book title
The language of majority in Belgium is: Dutch
The noble equivalent of prize is in architecture is:pritker prize
Friday, June 3, 2011
GK Indian history Practice test for UPSC Civil Services prelims
Indian history Practice test for UPSC Civil Services prelims
Civil Services Prelims Practice Test on Indian History
UPSC prelims Indian history practice test papers
1. Which one of the following is the most important feature of Bhagavatism?
(A) Stress on devotion to a personal God
(B) Stress on penance
(C) Stress on rituals
(D) Stress on knowledge
Ans. (A)
2. Amir Khusrau’s Khazain-ul-Futuh gives an account of the military campaigns of—
(A) Malik Kafur in South India
(B) Sultan Balban in the Mewat region
(C) Muhammad Tughlaq in Gujarat
(D) Feroze Tughlaq in Orissa
Ans. (A)
3. Which one of the following sultans introduced a rural tax called haqq-i-Sharb?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(D) Feroze Tughlaq
Ans. (D)
4. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) —
Assertion (A): After the Kushans the Turks brought the technique of constructing the true arch on a massive scale.
Reason (R): The Turks introduced into India the technique of preparing lime-mortar. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) re true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (A)
5. Who among the following Bahamani rulers established a matrimonial a1liancewith one of the Rajas of Vijayanagar?
(A) Alauddin Bahman Shah
(B) Feroze Shah Bahamani
(C) Mahmud Shah-I
(D) Ahmad Shah
Ans. (B)
6. The principal governors of the Vijayanagar Empire were known as —
(A) Rautas
(B) Nayakas
(C) Paligars
(D) Naiyars
Ans. (B)
7. The Hindustan Republican Association founded for organizing an armed revolution was renamed as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association under the leadership of—
(A) Acharya Narendra Dev
(B) Ram Prasad Bismil
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(D) S. A.Dange
Ans. (C)
8. The Cabinet Delegation consisted f—
(A) Lord Pethic Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and Mr. Alexander
(B) Lord Wavell, Sir Stafford Cripps and Mr. Alexander
(C) Lord Wavell, Lord Pethic Lawrence and Mr. Alexander
(D) Sir Stafford Cripps, Lord Wavell and Lord Pethic Lawrence
Ans. (A)
9. The niravasita (Excluded) and aniravasita (not excluded) Shudras has been referred to by—
(A) Yaska in the Nirukta
(B) Panini in the Ashtadhyayi
(C) Kautilya in the Arthashastra
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
10. During the thirteenth century the term fawazil denoted—
(A) The surplus revenue remitted to the State
(B) A head man of Pargana
(C) A military rank
(D) The crown land
Ans. (A)
11. The change of the capital of the Bahmani kingdom from Gulbarga to Bidar took place during the reign of—
(A) Shihabuddin Ahmad-I
(B Ghiyasuddin Tahmtan
(C) Shamsuddin Daud
(D) Tajuddin Feroze
Ans. (A)
12. The central administration of the Vijayanagar kingdom maintained contact with the village through an officer called—
(A) Naik
(B) Mahanayakacharyya
(C) Mahapratihara
(D) Dandapasika
Ans. (B)
13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(a) Ajanta 1. Temples built by the Chandela rulers
(b) Ellora 2. Cave Paintings
(c) Khajuraho 3. Kailasha temple
(d) Elephanta 4. Brahmanical sculptures
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (A)
14. Who among the following had referred to the lost glory and splendour of Pataliputra?
(A) Cosms
(B) Fa-hien
(C) Huien Tsang
(D) Megasthenes
Ans. (C)
15. Which one of the following Sultans brought the Ashokan Pillar to Delhi?
(A) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(B) Firoze Tughlaq
(C) Alauddin Khalji
(D) Muhammad Tughlaq
Ans. (B)
16. Which one of the following measures was taken by Balban for reestablishing the prestige and power of the crown?
1. He claimed his descent from the mythical hero Afrasiyab.
2. He copied the court etiquettes of the Iranian Court.
3. He instituted rigid formalities in the harem.
4. He reorganised the boundaries of provinces of the kingdom.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Ans. (B)
17. The fixation of land revenue on the basis measurement of land and estimation of yield per biswa was done first under—
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Muhammed Tughlaq
(C) Firoze Shah Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans. (A)
18. The Vijayanagar emperor who made the greatest contribution to Telugu and Sanskrit literature was —
(A) Devaraya I
(B) Devaraya II
(C) Krishnadevaraya
(D) Ramaraya
Ans. (C)
19. The chronological order in which the following foreign travellers, viz.—
1. Nicolo Conti
2. Abdur Razzaq
3. Ibn Batuta, and
4. Barbosa
visited India is —
(A) 1,3,4,2
(B) 3,1,2,4
(C) 3,1,4,2
(D) 1,3,2,4
Ans. (B)
20. During the reign of Ashoka Kumaras were stationed at—
(A) Takshasila, Tosali and Ujjayani
(B) Takshasila, Ujjayani and Junagarh
(C) Takshasila, Tosali and Sopara
(D) Ujjayani, Mathura and Yerragudi
Ans. (A)
21. The first session of the All India Trade Union Congress held in Bombay was presided over by—
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) S.A.Dange
(C) N.M. Joshi
(D) B. Shiva Rao
Ans. (A)
22. The crops cultivated by the Harappans included—
(A) Wheat, barley and mustard
(B) Barley, groundnut and rice
(C) Wheat, rice and sugarcane
(D) Wheat, cotton and sugarcane
Ans. (A)
23. Which of the following Harappan sites are located in the Kutch region?
(A) Desalpur and Surkotada
(B) Rangpur and Rojidi
(C) Allabadino and Balakot
(D) Lothal and Surkotada
Ans. (A)
24. Which one of the following is correctly matched in the context of the Vedi culture?
(A) Asura : A sacred plant
(B) Pushan : Tribal assembly
(C) Rita : Inebriating drink
(D) Ribhu : Gnomes
Ans. (D)
25. In the succession issue of which one of the following Rajput status Emperor Jahangir intervened and gave tika to the person of his choice?
(A) Amber
(B) Marwar
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jaisalmer
Ans. (A)
26. Which of the following two kingdoms in the Deccan were conquered by Aurangzeb?
(A) Bidar and Bijapur
(B) Bijapur and Golconda
(C) Golconda and Ahmadnagar
(D) Ahmadnagar and Bijapur
Ans. (B)
27. Abul Fazl gives names of a few Mughal artists in the Ain-i-Akbari who worked at the Mughal atelier. The number of painters mentioned by him is—
(A) 17
(B) 22
(C) 28
(D) 34
Ans. (A)
28. Which of the following are correctly matched?
Mughal emperors Tomb at
1. Babur : Kabul
2. Akbar : Fatehpur Sikri
3. Jahangir : Lahore
4. Bahadur Shah Zafar: Delhi
Codes:
(A) 1and2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3and4
(D) 1 and3
Ans. (D)
29. Abul Fazl refers in his writings to the—
(A) Methods of distillation
(B) Working of telescope
(C) Principle of gravitation
(D) Technique of metal casting
Ans. (D)
30. Which one of the following was well known for the production of indigo during the seventeenth century?
(A) Balasore
(B) Kalpi
(C) Lahore
(D) Sarkhej
Ans. (D)
31. The Portuguese conquered Goa and lost Hormuz respectively in—
(A) A.D.1505and 1598
(B) A.D.l5lOand 1605
(C) A.D. 1510 and 1622
(D) A.D. 1515 and 1618
Ans. (C)
32. Which one of the following was written by prince Dara Shikoh?
(A) Fuwaid-ul-Fawad
(B) Chahar Guishan
(C) Chahar Chaman
(D) Majma-ul-Bahrain
Ans. (D)
33. Who among the following were the sons and grandson of Bahadur Shah II and played a prominent role in the Rebellion of 1857 and were captured and shot?
(A) Bakhat Khan, Ahsanullah Khan and Mahbub Ali
(B) Mirza Moghul, Mirza Khwaja Sultan and Mirza Abu Bakr
(C) Prince Azam, Azim-ush-Shan and Muazzam
(D) Asad Khan, Kam Bakhash and Jahandar Shah
Ans. (B)
34. The Poona Pact aimed at—
(A) Hindu-Muslim unity
(B) Representation of lower castes
(C) Privileges of the princes
(D) Review of the working of Dyarchy
Ans. (B)
35. Who among the following is said to be the founder of the Pasupata cult?
(A) Basava
(B) Lakulisa
(C) Kusika
(D) Gorakhnatha
Ans. (B)
36. Most of the Ashokan inscriptions are in Prakrit language because it was—
(A) The language of the State
(B) Understood by a majority of the people
(C) Used by the Tathagata Buddha
(D) The only language known at that time
Ans. (B)
37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List-I List-II
(Period) (Revenue settlement)
(a) 1833 1. Ryotwan
(b) 1793 2. Mahalwari
(c) 1792 3. Zamindari
(d) 1769 4. Quinquennial
5. Decennial
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 3 5 4
(D) 3 2 1 5
Ans. (C)
38. The Longest canal of its time which is still used and is most beneficial to North India was built by —
(A) Shershah Suri
(B) Babur
(C) Firoze Shah
(D) Shahjahan
Ans. (C)
39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I (Events) List II (Years)
(a) Conquest of Malwa 1. 1562
(b) Formation of Subas 2. 1574-75
(c) Annexation of Kashm 3. 1580
(d) Establishment of the Department 4. 1586
of New reporting
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (D)
40. Which of the following were the main features of the imperial Mughal land revenue
System?
1. It varied according to the crop grown.
2. It varied from region to region.
3. It varied according to farming bids received.
4. It varied according to individual contracts with village headmen.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 2,3and4
(B) land4
(C) land2
(D) land3
Ans. (C)
41. “So complete was the ruin that not a cat or dog was left among the buildings of the city, in its palace or its Suburbs.” The above statement about the transfer of capital by Sultan Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq was made by—
(A) Amir Khusrau
(B) Isami
(C) IbnBatuta
(D) Ziauddin Barani
Ans. (D)
42. The following Sufi Silsilas (orders)
1. Naqshbandi
2. Chisti
3. Qacliri, and
4. Suharawardi appeared in India at different times. Their chronological order is—
(A) 4,2,3,1
(B) 2,4,1,3
(C) 2,4,3,1
(D) 4,2,1,3
Ans. (C)
43. Consider the passage given below: “No one should interfere with the people’s religious beliefs, for no one deliberately chooses an incorrect religion.” This view was expressed in—
(A) Advice to Bughra Khan
(B) Advice to Humayun
(C) Letter to Shah Abbas
(D) Message to Khusrau
Ans. (C)
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists
List-I (Period) List-II (Events)
(a) 1645 AD 1. Aurangzeb was appointed Viceroy of Deccan
(b) 1637 AD 2. Gujarat famine
(c) 1630 AD 3. Transfer of capital to Shahjahanabad
(d) 1666 AD 4. Death of Shahjahan
5. Capture of Kangra fort
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 5 4
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 3 2 5
Ans. (B)
45. Which one of the following pairs is not ?correctly matched?
(A) Arif Qandahan Tarikh-i-Akbari
(B) Nizamuddin Ahmad Tabaqat-i-Akbari
(C) Abdul Qadir Badauni Muntakhab-utTawarikh
(D) Mutamad Khan Khulastut Twairikh
Ans. (D)
46. That men in some areas of India lived in underground pits is suggested by excavations in—
(A) Bihar
(B) Kashmir
(C) Karnataka
(D) Rajasthan
Ans. (B)
47. Aranyani, Goddess of the forest, is first mentioned in the —
(A) Rik Samhita
(B) Xtharvaveda
(C) Aranyaka texts
(D) Upailishadic texts
Ans. (A)
48. They mention the ruling families of the Kurus, Panchalas and the Ikshavakus:
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) l and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (C)
49. The doctrine of void (Shunyat) was first expounded by the Buddhist philosopher—
(A) Nagarjuna
(B) Nagasena
(C) Ananda
(D) Ashvaghosha
Ans. (A)
50. The fertile agrarian tract in the early Tamil country is denoted by the term—
(A) Palai
(B) Marudam
(C) Mullai
(D) Neydal
Ans. (B)
Civil Services Prelims Practice Test on Indian History
UPSC prelims Indian history practice test papers
1. Which one of the following is the most important feature of Bhagavatism?
(A) Stress on devotion to a personal God
(B) Stress on penance
(C) Stress on rituals
(D) Stress on knowledge
Ans. (A)
2. Amir Khusrau’s Khazain-ul-Futuh gives an account of the military campaigns of—
(A) Malik Kafur in South India
(B) Sultan Balban in the Mewat region
(C) Muhammad Tughlaq in Gujarat
(D) Feroze Tughlaq in Orissa
Ans. (A)
3. Which one of the following sultans introduced a rural tax called haqq-i-Sharb?
(A) Iltutmish
(B) Alauddin Khalji
(C) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(D) Feroze Tughlaq
Ans. (D)
4. Given below are two statements, one labelled as Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R) —
Assertion (A): After the Kushans the Turks brought the technique of constructing the true arch on a massive scale.
Reason (R): The Turks introduced into India the technique of preparing lime-mortar. In the context of the above two statements which one of the following is correct?
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(B) Both (A) and (R) re true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(C) (A) is true but (R) is false
(D) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (A)
5. Who among the following Bahamani rulers established a matrimonial a1liancewith one of the Rajas of Vijayanagar?
(A) Alauddin Bahman Shah
(B) Feroze Shah Bahamani
(C) Mahmud Shah-I
(D) Ahmad Shah
Ans. (B)
6. The principal governors of the Vijayanagar Empire were known as —
(A) Rautas
(B) Nayakas
(C) Paligars
(D) Naiyars
Ans. (B)
7. The Hindustan Republican Association founded for organizing an armed revolution was renamed as the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association under the leadership of—
(A) Acharya Narendra Dev
(B) Ram Prasad Bismil
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad
(D) S. A.Dange
Ans. (C)
8. The Cabinet Delegation consisted f—
(A) Lord Pethic Lawrence, Sir Stafford Cripps and Mr. Alexander
(B) Lord Wavell, Sir Stafford Cripps and Mr. Alexander
(C) Lord Wavell, Lord Pethic Lawrence and Mr. Alexander
(D) Sir Stafford Cripps, Lord Wavell and Lord Pethic Lawrence
Ans. (A)
9. The niravasita (Excluded) and aniravasita (not excluded) Shudras has been referred to by—
(A) Yaska in the Nirukta
(B) Panini in the Ashtadhyayi
(C) Kautilya in the Arthashastra
(D) None of the above
Ans. (B)
10. During the thirteenth century the term fawazil denoted—
(A) The surplus revenue remitted to the State
(B) A head man of Pargana
(C) A military rank
(D) The crown land
Ans. (A)
11. The change of the capital of the Bahmani kingdom from Gulbarga to Bidar took place during the reign of—
(A) Shihabuddin Ahmad-I
(B Ghiyasuddin Tahmtan
(C) Shamsuddin Daud
(D) Tajuddin Feroze
Ans. (A)
12. The central administration of the Vijayanagar kingdom maintained contact with the village through an officer called—
(A) Naik
(B) Mahanayakacharyya
(C) Mahapratihara
(D) Dandapasika
Ans. (B)
13. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(a) Ajanta 1. Temples built by the Chandela rulers
(b) Ellora 2. Cave Paintings
(c) Khajuraho 3. Kailasha temple
(d) Elephanta 4. Brahmanical sculptures
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 2 3 1 4
(B) 2 4 1 3
(C) 1 3 4 2
(D) 3 2 1 4
Ans. (A)
14. Who among the following had referred to the lost glory and splendour of Pataliputra?
(A) Cosms
(B) Fa-hien
(C) Huien Tsang
(D) Megasthenes
Ans. (C)
15. Which one of the following Sultans brought the Ashokan Pillar to Delhi?
(A) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
(B) Firoze Tughlaq
(C) Alauddin Khalji
(D) Muhammad Tughlaq
Ans. (B)
16. Which one of the following measures was taken by Balban for reestablishing the prestige and power of the crown?
1. He claimed his descent from the mythical hero Afrasiyab.
2. He copied the court etiquettes of the Iranian Court.
3. He instituted rigid formalities in the harem.
4. He reorganised the boundaries of provinces of the kingdom.
Select the correct answer by using the codes given below:
(A) 2 and 3
(B) 1 and 2
(C) 3 and 4
(D) 2 and 4
Ans. (B)
17. The fixation of land revenue on the basis measurement of land and estimation of yield per biswa was done first under—
(A) Alauddin Khalji
(B) Muhammed Tughlaq
(C) Firoze Shah Tughlaq
(D) Sikandar Lodi
Ans. (A)
18. The Vijayanagar emperor who made the greatest contribution to Telugu and Sanskrit literature was —
(A) Devaraya I
(B) Devaraya II
(C) Krishnadevaraya
(D) Ramaraya
Ans. (C)
19. The chronological order in which the following foreign travellers, viz.—
1. Nicolo Conti
2. Abdur Razzaq
3. Ibn Batuta, and
4. Barbosa
visited India is —
(A) 1,3,4,2
(B) 3,1,2,4
(C) 3,1,4,2
(D) 1,3,2,4
Ans. (B)
20. During the reign of Ashoka Kumaras were stationed at—
(A) Takshasila, Tosali and Ujjayani
(B) Takshasila, Ujjayani and Junagarh
(C) Takshasila, Tosali and Sopara
(D) Ujjayani, Mathura and Yerragudi
Ans. (A)
21. The first session of the All India Trade Union Congress held in Bombay was presided over by—
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) S.A.Dange
(C) N.M. Joshi
(D) B. Shiva Rao
Ans. (A)
22. The crops cultivated by the Harappans included—
(A) Wheat, barley and mustard
(B) Barley, groundnut and rice
(C) Wheat, rice and sugarcane
(D) Wheat, cotton and sugarcane
Ans. (A)
23. Which of the following Harappan sites are located in the Kutch region?
(A) Desalpur and Surkotada
(B) Rangpur and Rojidi
(C) Allabadino and Balakot
(D) Lothal and Surkotada
Ans. (A)
24. Which one of the following is correctly matched in the context of the Vedi culture?
(A) Asura : A sacred plant
(B) Pushan : Tribal assembly
(C) Rita : Inebriating drink
(D) Ribhu : Gnomes
Ans. (D)
25. In the succession issue of which one of the following Rajput status Emperor Jahangir intervened and gave tika to the person of his choice?
(A) Amber
(B) Marwar
(C) Bikaner
(D) Jaisalmer
Ans. (A)
26. Which of the following two kingdoms in the Deccan were conquered by Aurangzeb?
(A) Bidar and Bijapur
(B) Bijapur and Golconda
(C) Golconda and Ahmadnagar
(D) Ahmadnagar and Bijapur
Ans. (B)
27. Abul Fazl gives names of a few Mughal artists in the Ain-i-Akbari who worked at the Mughal atelier. The number of painters mentioned by him is—
(A) 17
(B) 22
(C) 28
(D) 34
Ans. (A)
28. Which of the following are correctly matched?
Mughal emperors Tomb at
1. Babur : Kabul
2. Akbar : Fatehpur Sikri
3. Jahangir : Lahore
4. Bahadur Shah Zafar: Delhi
Codes:
(A) 1and2
(B) 2 and 3
(C) 3and4
(D) 1 and3
Ans. (D)
29. Abul Fazl refers in his writings to the—
(A) Methods of distillation
(B) Working of telescope
(C) Principle of gravitation
(D) Technique of metal casting
Ans. (D)
30. Which one of the following was well known for the production of indigo during the seventeenth century?
(A) Balasore
(B) Kalpi
(C) Lahore
(D) Sarkhej
Ans. (D)
31. The Portuguese conquered Goa and lost Hormuz respectively in—
(A) A.D.1505and 1598
(B) A.D.l5lOand 1605
(C) A.D. 1510 and 1622
(D) A.D. 1515 and 1618
Ans. (C)
32. Which one of the following was written by prince Dara Shikoh?
(A) Fuwaid-ul-Fawad
(B) Chahar Guishan
(C) Chahar Chaman
(D) Majma-ul-Bahrain
Ans. (D)
33. Who among the following were the sons and grandson of Bahadur Shah II and played a prominent role in the Rebellion of 1857 and were captured and shot?
(A) Bakhat Khan, Ahsanullah Khan and Mahbub Ali
(B) Mirza Moghul, Mirza Khwaja Sultan and Mirza Abu Bakr
(C) Prince Azam, Azim-ush-Shan and Muazzam
(D) Asad Khan, Kam Bakhash and Jahandar Shah
Ans. (B)
34. The Poona Pact aimed at—
(A) Hindu-Muslim unity
(B) Representation of lower castes
(C) Privileges of the princes
(D) Review of the working of Dyarchy
Ans. (B)
35. Who among the following is said to be the founder of the Pasupata cult?
(A) Basava
(B) Lakulisa
(C) Kusika
(D) Gorakhnatha
Ans. (B)
36. Most of the Ashokan inscriptions are in Prakrit language because it was—
(A) The language of the State
(B) Understood by a majority of the people
(C) Used by the Tathagata Buddha
(D) The only language known at that time
Ans. (B)
37. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer:
List-I List-II
(Period) (Revenue settlement)
(a) 1833 1. Ryotwan
(b) 1793 2. Mahalwari
(c) 1792 3. Zamindari
(d) 1769 4. Quinquennial
5. Decennial
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 1 2 3 4
(B) 2 3 1 4
(C) 2 3 5 4
(D) 3 2 1 5
Ans. (C)
38. The Longest canal of its time which is still used and is most beneficial to North India was built by —
(A) Shershah Suri
(B) Babur
(C) Firoze Shah
(D) Shahjahan
Ans. (C)
39. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I (Events) List II (Years)
(a) Conquest of Malwa 1. 1562
(b) Formation of Subas 2. 1574-75
(c) Annexation of Kashm 3. 1580
(d) Establishment of the Department 4. 1586
of New reporting
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 2 4
(B) 1 3 2 4
(C) 3 1 4 2
(D) 1 3 4 2
Ans. (D)
40. Which of the following were the main features of the imperial Mughal land revenue
System?
1. It varied according to the crop grown.
2. It varied from region to region.
3. It varied according to farming bids received.
4. It varied according to individual contracts with village headmen.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(A) 2,3and4
(B) land4
(C) land2
(D) land3
Ans. (C)
41. “So complete was the ruin that not a cat or dog was left among the buildings of the city, in its palace or its Suburbs.” The above statement about the transfer of capital by Sultan Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq was made by—
(A) Amir Khusrau
(B) Isami
(C) IbnBatuta
(D) Ziauddin Barani
Ans. (D)
42. The following Sufi Silsilas (orders)
1. Naqshbandi
2. Chisti
3. Qacliri, and
4. Suharawardi appeared in India at different times. Their chronological order is—
(A) 4,2,3,1
(B) 2,4,1,3
(C) 2,4,3,1
(D) 4,2,1,3
Ans. (C)
43. Consider the passage given below: “No one should interfere with the people’s religious beliefs, for no one deliberately chooses an incorrect religion.” This view was expressed in—
(A) Advice to Bughra Khan
(B) Advice to Humayun
(C) Letter to Shah Abbas
(D) Message to Khusrau
Ans. (C)
44. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer by using the codes given below the lists
List-I (Period) List-II (Events)
(a) 1645 AD 1. Aurangzeb was appointed Viceroy of Deccan
(b) 1637 AD 2. Gujarat famine
(c) 1630 AD 3. Transfer of capital to Shahjahanabad
(d) 1666 AD 4. Death of Shahjahan
5. Capture of Kangra fort
Codes:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
(A) 3 1 5 4
(B) 3 1 2 4
(C) 4 3 1 2
(D) 1 3 2 5
Ans. (B)
45. Which one of the following pairs is not ?correctly matched?
(A) Arif Qandahan Tarikh-i-Akbari
(B) Nizamuddin Ahmad Tabaqat-i-Akbari
(C) Abdul Qadir Badauni Muntakhab-utTawarikh
(D) Mutamad Khan Khulastut Twairikh
Ans. (D)
46. That men in some areas of India lived in underground pits is suggested by excavations in—
(A) Bihar
(B) Kashmir
(C) Karnataka
(D) Rajasthan
Ans. (B)
47. Aranyani, Goddess of the forest, is first mentioned in the —
(A) Rik Samhita
(B) Xtharvaveda
(C) Aranyaka texts
(D) Upailishadic texts
Ans. (A)
48. They mention the ruling families of the Kurus, Panchalas and the Ikshavakus:
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
(A) l and 2
(B) 1 and 3
(C) 2, 3 and 4
(D) l, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (C)
49. The doctrine of void (Shunyat) was first expounded by the Buddhist philosopher—
(A) Nagarjuna
(B) Nagasena
(C) Ananda
(D) Ashvaghosha
Ans. (A)
50. The fertile agrarian tract in the early Tamil country is denoted by the term—
(A) Palai
(B) Marudam
(C) Mullai
(D) Neydal
Ans. (B)
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