Thursday, February 17, 2011

General Awareness GK for exams

General Awareness GK for exams
General Knowledge Informations General Knowledge in India
Objective GK General Knowledge Current Affairs

1. Who was the Chairman of the 12th Finance Commission?
(A)Montek Singh Ahiuwalia
(B)D.C. Rangarajan
(C)K.C. Pant
(D)Dr. Bimal Jalan

Ans. (B)

2. Which Indian Prime Minister did never visit China?
(A) Jawaharlal Nehru
(B) Indira Gandhi
(C) Rajeev Gandhi
(D)P.V. Narsimha Rao

Ans. (B)



3. Who is the largest importer of Petroleum in the world?
(A) Japan
(B) France
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Canada

Ans. (C)

4, who is called as the country of ‘Midnight Sun’?
(A) Japan
(B) Bhutan
(C) Norway
(D) Italy

Ans. (C)

5. Largest Gold producing country in the world is—
(A) Zimbabwe
(B) Russia
(C) South Africa
(D) U.S.A.

Ans. (C)

6. ‘Silicon Valley’ is situated in—
(A) Scotland
(B) California
(C) Swiss Alps
(D) New England States

Ans. (B)

7. How much part of the land on earth is covered by forests?
(A) 40%
(B) 20%
(C) 18%
(D) 30%

Ans. (A)

8. Nancy is the famous industrial city of—
(A) Britain
(B) United States America
(C) France
(D) Germany

Ans. (C)

9. The distance between 10 longitude along equator is approximately equal to—
(A) 224 km
(B) 111km
(C) 56km
(D) 69 km

Ans. (B)

10. Java and Sumatra Islands are in—
(A) Philippines
(B) Newzeland
(C) Indonesia
(D) Jftan

Ans. (C)

11. Budapest is the capital of—
(A) Spain
(B) Bulgaria
(C) Hangri
(D) Poland

Ans. (C)



13. Who provides authorized certification of AGMARK in India?
(A) National Agricultural Cooperative Marketing Federation (NAFED)
(B) Directorate of Marketing and ejection (Govt. of India)
(C) Indian Standards Institute (ISI)
(D) National Dairy Development Board (NDDB)

Ans. (A)

14. Who is known as the father of ‘Green Revolution’ in agriculture in India?
(A) Norman E. Borloug
(B) M.S. Swami Nathan
(C) Garry Baker
(D) None of them

Ans. (B)

15. World’s largest producer of Jute products is—
(A) Bangla Desh
(B) Pakistan
(C) India
(D) Myanmar

Ans. (A)

16. What is OPEC?
(A) Latest Space-craft of America
(B) Latest Space-craft of Russia
(C) Organization of Non-aligned Countries
(D) Organization of Oil-exporting Countries

Ans. (D)

17. World Trade Organization (WTO) came into existence in place of which organization?
(A) UNICEF
(B) UNESCO
(C) GATT
(D) UNCTAD

Ans. (C)

18. What is the population of India according to 2001 census?
(A) 1007 Crores
(B) 1012 Crores
(C) 1028 Crores
(D) 1042 Crores

Ans. (C)

19. What was the period of Tenth Five Year Plan?
(A) 1992—1997
(B) 1991—1996
(C) 1997—2002
(D) 2002—2007

Ans. (D)

20. What is meant by Core Sector in the Plan?
(A) Agriculture
(B) Defence
(C) Iron and Steel Industry
(D) Selected Basic Industries

Ans. (D)

21. When was the custom of bonded labour abolished in the entire country?
(A) 1975
(B) 1978
(C) 1980
(D) 1982

Ans. (A)

22. What is ‘Mandi House’?
(A) A film by Shyam Benegal
(B) The office of Director General of Doordarshan
(C) Commercial Centre in Mumbai
(D) Film Censor Board of India

Ans. (B)

23. ‘India is For Sale’ is a book written by—
(A) Khushwant Singh
(B) Vikram Singh
(C) Chitra Subramanium
(D) Shobha Dey

Ans. (C)

24. ‘A Prisoner’s Scrap Book’ is authored by—
(A) Murli Manohar Joshi
(B) Atal Behari Vajpai
(C) Lal Krishna Advani
(D) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

Ans. (C)

25. Who was honored with ‘Bharat Ratna’ in his own life-time.?
(A)Lal Bahadur Shastri
(B)K. Kamraj Nadar
(C)M.G. Ramachandran
(D)Purushottam Das Tandon

Ans. (D)

26. Who is the writer of ‘Ignited Minds’?
(A) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(B) Bala Saheb Thackre
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) Nayan Tara Sehgal

Ans. (A)

27. ‘Inside C.B.I.’ is written by—
(A) R.C. Sharma
(B) K.P.S. Gill
(C) Joginder Singh
(D) P.R. Kartikeyan

Ans. (C)

28. Which mobile phone service has “Empress Yourself” as its advertisement line?
(A) Idea
(B) Airtel
(C) Hutch
(D) BSNL

Ans. (B)

29. Mangalore Refineries and Petro-chemicals ltd. is in sister company of—
(A) IOC
(B) BPCL
(C) HPCL
(D) ONGC

Ans. (D)

30. Which of the following days is celebrated as Nation Energy Conservation Day?
(A) 5 June
(B) 15 September
(C) 4 November
(D) 14 December

Ans. (D)

31. ‘World Development Report’ is the publication of—
(A) International Monetary Fund
(B) World Bank
(C) World Trade Organization
(D) UNTAD

Ans. (B)


32. The first ‘Bio-tech City’ of the country is—
(A) Bangalore
(B) Kanpur
(C) Lucknow
(D) New Delhi

Ans. (C)

33. The book ‘The Otherness of Self’ has been written by—
(A) Rahul Gandhi
(B) Sachin Pilot
(C) Varun Gandhi
(D) Jyotiraditya Scindhia

Ans. (C)

34. Who is at present the Chief of Air Staff?
(A) Air Chief Marshal S.K. Sarin
(B) Air Chief Marshal S.Krishnaswami
(C) Air Chief Marshal S.P. Tyagi
(D) Air Chief Marshal S.K. Tipnis

Ans. (C)

35 Who is the ‘Missile Man’ of India?
(A) Dr. Kasturirangan
(B) Dr. Yashpal
(C) Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
(D) Dr. M.S. Swami Nathan

Ans. (C)

36. The Light Combat Aircraft (LCA) built in India has been named as—
(A) Indrajeet
(B) Tejus
(C) Pawanptttra
(D) Samiran

Ans. (B)

37. Guru Govind Singh founded ‘Khalsa Panth’ in—
(A) 1665
(B) 1666
(C) 1688
(D) 1699

Ans. (D)

38. After Hazarat Mohammad Saheb, the religious teacher was called—
(A) Maulvi
(B) Kazi
(C) Khalifa
(D) Imam

Ans. (C)

39. Where is Maharani Laxmi Bai National College of Physical Education situated?
(A) Jhansi
(B) Gwalior
(C) Indore
(D) Bhopal

Ans. (B)

40. Sania Mirza is associated with the game of—
(A) Tennis
(B) Badminton
(C). Chess
(D) Atheletics

Ans. (A)

41. Which new game was inducted in 25th Olympic Games?
(A) Ice-Hockey
(B) Lawn Tennis
(C) Table Tennis
(D) Badminton

Ans. (A)

42. The breadth of Cricket-pitch is—
(A) 152 metres
(B) 5 metres
(C) 7 metres
(D) 8 metres

Ans. (A)

43. First woman player to win Arjun Award is—
(A) Mary D’ souza
(B) Kamaijeet Sandhu
(C) Stefi D’ souza
(D) P.T. Usha

Ans. (C)

44. Which day is celebrated as National Sports Day in India?
(A) 15th August
(B) 29th August
(C) 18th September
(D) 26th June

Ans. (B)

45. Which is the oldest Football Tournament of India?
(A) Rovers Cup
(B) Santosh Trophy
(C) Durrand Cup
(D) I.F.A. Shield

Ans. (C)

46. ‘Newton-second’ is the unit of—
(A) Energy
(B) Power
(C) Force
(D) Momentum

Ans. (D)

47. Molecular weight of heavy water is—
(A) 16
(B) 18
(C) 22
(D) 20

Ans. (D)

48. To explain which of the following quantum principle is required?
(A) Interference
(B) Diffraction
(C) Polarization
(D) Photoelectric effect

Ans. (D)

49. In diesel engine ignition is produced by—
(A) Spark plug
(B) Automatic starter
(C) Compression
(D) Friction

Ans. (C)

50. Which of the following is of nature of light?
(A) X-rays
(B) Cathode rays
(C) Alfa-rays
(D) Beta-rays

Ans. (A)

Wednesday, February 2, 2011

Free Current GK test

Free Current GK test
Free General Knowledge Online Practice Tes

1. The aim of the ISRO,s OCEANSAT-2 satellite is
(A) to provide ocean scientists knowledge about mineral resources under the sea
(B) to aid fishermen in identifying fishing zones
(C) to aid weathermen to forecast cylones and weather conditions
(D) All of the above
D

2. Which one among the following is regarded as the ‘Magna Carta’ of Indian education
(A) Wood’s Despatch
(B) Hunter’s Commission
(C) Sadler Commission
(D) Wardha Scheme
A

3. Nilgiri, Himgiri and Beas are
(A) Aircraft carrier ships
(B) Frigates
(C) Nuclear submarines
(D) Oil tankers of ONGC
B

4. The age of a tree can be calculated by
(A) number of branches
(B) its height
(C) girth of its trunk
(D) number of its annual rings
D

5. Which one of the statements below explains the external economies of scale?
(A) Starting a computer firm in a Techno Park to avail the expertise.
(B) Expanding firms employing specialist accountants, lawyers and managers.
(C) A manufacturer spreading the research and development cost over the output.
(D) A major supermarket gaining bulk discounts on direct purchase.
D

6. Which one of the following types of unemployment is common in Indian agriculture ?
(A) Frictional
(B) Structural
(C) Disguised
(D) Seasonal
D

7. A rolling plan refers to a plan which
(A) does not change its targets every year.
(B) changes its allocations every year.
(C) changes its allocations and targets every year.
(D) changes only its targets every year.
C

8. An instrument of qualitative credit control in India is
(A) open market operations
(B) credit rationing
(C) change in reserve ratio
(D) bank rate policy
D

9. Laissez-faire is a feature of
(A) Socialism
(B) Communism
(C) Capitalism
(D) Mixed Economy
C

10. Which one of the-following is not a source of the tax revenue in Indian States?
(A) Land Revenue
(B) Motor Vehicle Tax
(C) Entertainment Tax
(D) Corporate Tax
D

11. CSO has changed its base year for National Income estimation. The new base year is
(A) 1990-91
(B) 1993-94
(C) 1994-95
(D) 1995-96
B

12. Which is the biggest enterprise of the Government of India?
(A) Postal and Telegraph
(B) Railways
(C) Banking
(D) Shipping
B

13. In which type of competition does Marginal Revenue Curve coincide with Average Revenue Curve
(A) Monopoly
(B) Imperfect Competition
(C) Perfect Competition
(D) Monopolistic Competition
C

14. According to J.A. Schumpeter, entrepreneurs are entitled to enjoy the profit for their ______ activities.
(A innovative
(B) risk taking
(C)risk averting
(D) hard work
A

15. Demonstration effect means
(A) effect of advertisement
(B) imitating effect of consumption
(C) effect of entertainment
(D effect of an experiment
D

16. Homogeneous product is a feature
(A) Imperfect market
(B) Monopoly
(C) Oligopoly
(D) Perfect market
C

17. Which part of the Indian Constitution declares the Ideals of Welfare State?
(A) Fundamental Rights
(B) Fundamental Duties
(C) Preamble
(Q) Directive Principles of State Policy
D

.18. Who said, “Parliamentary System provides a daily as well as a periodic ‘assessment of the Government”
(A) Dr. B Ambedkar
(B) Shri B.N. Rao
(C) Shri Jawaharlal Nehru
(D) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
A

19. The legal advisor to the State Government is known as
(A) Advocate-General
(B) Attorney-General
(C) Solicitor-General
(D) State Public Prosecutor
A

20. The maximum duration of Zero Hour in Lok Sabha is
(A)30 minutes
(B) one hour
(C)two hours
(D) unspecified
B

21. Which agency acts as co-ordinator between Union Government, Planning Commission and State Governments ?
(A) National Integration Council
(B) Finance Commission
(C) National Development Council
(D) Inter-State Council
C

22. When will demand become a grant?
(A) When a demand is proposed
(B) After the discussion on demand is over
(C) After the demand is granted
(D) When the Budget Session is closed
C

23. What makes the Judiciary the guardian of the Constitution ?
(A) Independence
(B) Service Conditions
(C) Salary
(D) Judicial Review
A

24. What is the name of Judicial organ of UNO?
(A) Supreme Court
(B) Court of International Justice
(C) Judicial Forum
(D) International Court of Justice
D

25. The Election disputes regarding the Election of President and Vice- President can be heard by
(A) Parliament
(B) Central Election Commission
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Attorney-General of India
C

256. Balwant Rai Mehta Committee suggested that the structure of Panchayati Raj should consist of
(A) the village, the block and the district levels
(B) the mandal and the district levels
(C) the village, the district and the State levels
(D) the village, the mandal, the district and the State levels
A

27. Which of the following has banned ‘floor Crossing’ by the members elected on a party ticket to the legislature?
(A) 52nd Constitution Amendment
(B) Representation of People Act
(C) National Security Act
(D) Maintenance of Internal Security Act
A

28. The expression ‘Creamy Layer’ used in the judgement of the Supreme Court relating to the case regarding reservations refers to
(A) those sections of society which pay Income-tax.
(B) those sections of socially and educationally backward classes of the society that are economically advanced.
(C) those sections of ‘the society that are considered advanced according to Karpuri Thakur formula
(D) all sections of upper castes of the society
B

29. When was the Panchtantra written?
(A) Maurya period
(B) Kanishka period
(C) Gupta period
(D) Harsha period
C

Question Bank General Awareness For UPSC

Question Bank General Awareness For UPSC
UPSC Solved Sample Question Paper

1. Buddhism became a worldwide religion with the efforts of
(a) Bindusara
(b) Ashoka
(c) Kanishka
(c) Harsha
Ans : (b)

2. Which of the following is not a feature of Hinduism?
(a) Reverence for Veda
(b) Belief in God
(c) Emphasis on ritualism
(d) Doctrine of ahimsa
Ans : (d)

3. Mahavira was born at
(a)Pataliputra
(b) Sravasti
(c) Rajagriha
(d) Vaisali
Ans : (d)

4. Who among the following rulers held a religious assembly at Prayag every five years?
(a) Asoka
(b) Kanishka
(c) Harshavardhana
(d) Chandragupta Vikramaditya
Ans : (c)

5. During the time of Harshavardhana, a great Buddhist assembly was held at
(a) Pataliputra
(b) Nalanda
(c) Prayag
(d) Purushapura
Ans : (b)


7. Which one of the following places was famous as a seat of Mahayana learning?
(a) Nalanda
(b) Taxila
(c) Varanasi
(d) Sarnath
Ans : (a)

8. Who was the first king to have the image of the Buddha inscribed on his coins?
(a) Ashoka
(b) Kanishka
(c) Dhannpala
(d) Harshavardhana
Ans : (b)

9. Idol worship in can he traced to the period of
(a) Vedas
(b) Mauryans
(c) Kushans
(d) Pre Aryans

Ans : (a)




10 During the Gupta period of Indian history, the village affairs were managed by the village head man with the assistance of
(a) Gapa
(b) visliyapati
(c) Malzauara
(d) Amatyn
Ans : (b)

11. Who among the following was a great ruler of Kalinga in ancient times?
(a)Ajatasatru
(b) Bindusara
(c)Rharavela
(d) Mayurasarman
Ans : (b)

12. The Arab conquest of Sindh took place in
(a) 712 AD.
(b)740 AD.
(c) 1001 AD
(d) 1009 AD
Ans : (a)

13 The original name of the Kushanas was in
(a) Persia
(b) Macedonia
(c) Arabia
(d) Chinese Turkistan
Ans : (d)

14 Chandragupta Maurya’s empire extended in the north -west up to
(a) Ravi
(b) Indus
(c) Sutlej
(d) Hindukush
Ans : (d)


15. Chandragupta Maurya overthrew the power of Nandas at
(a)Taxila
(b) Magadha
(c) Ujjain
(d) Sravana Belgola
Ans : (b)

16. The Huna leader Mihirgula was defeated by
(a) Rajyavardhana
(b) Chandragupta
(c) Yashodharman
(d) Buddhagupta
Ans : (c)

17. The name by which Ashoka is generally referred to in his inscriptions is
(a) Priyadarsi
(b) Dharmadeva
(c) Chakravarti
(d) Dharmakirti
Ans : (a)

18. Hindu colonies were founded in the South-east Asian countries mostly during the period of
(a) the Guptas
(b) the Mauryas
(c) the Rajputs
(d) the Cholas
Ans : (b)

19. The ‘Kaulinya system’ was introduced in Bengal by
(a)Hemanta Sena
(b) Ballala Sena
(c) Lakshmana Sena
(d) Vijaya Sena
Ans : (b)

20. PulakesinII was a contemporary of
(a)Samudragupta
(b) Ashoka
(c) Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Harsha
Ans : (d)



21. Which of the following rulers belonged to Slave Dynasty?
(a) Iltumish
(b) Humayun
(c) Akbar
(d) Ahmad Shah Abdali
Ans : (a)

22. Who among the following Sultans of Delhi has been described by the historians as the mixture of opposites?
(a)Balban
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Muhammad Tughluq
(d) Ibrahim Lodi
Ans : (c)


23. Who amongst the following was the ruler of Chittor, when Alauddin Khilji attacked and conqueered it in 1303 A.D.?
(a) Rana Sanga
(b) Rana Kumbha
(c) Rena Rattan Singh
(d) Rana Hammir
Ans : (c)

24. The dynasty that succeeded the Chalukyas in
Western India was that of the
(a)Cholas
(b) Kakatiyas
(c) Pallavas
(d) Rashtrakutas
Ans : (d)

25. Market control was first introduced in medieval India by
(a) Ghiasuddin Balban
(b) Firozeshah Tughlaq
(c) Iltumish
(d) Alauddin Khilji
Ans : (d)

26. Which of the following are correctly matched?

Persons Event
1. Sultan Mahmud Sack of Somnath
2. Muhammad Ghori Conquest of Sind
3. Alauddin Khilji Revolt in Bengal
4. Muhammad bin Tughlaq Changiz Khan’s invasion

(a) 1 and 3 (b) 2 only
(c) 1 only (4) 2 and 4
Ans : (c)


27. Vatapi was the capital of the
(a) Pallavas
(b) Rash trakutas
(c) Chalukyas
(d) Senas
Ans : (c)

28. Choose the set of correct chronological order of dynasties.
(a) Lodi, Slave, Tughlaq, Khalji
(b) Slave, Thghlaq, Khalji, Lodi
(c) Khalji, Lodi, Slave, Tughlaq
(d) Slave, Khalji, Tughlaq, Lodi
Ans : (d)

29. Who among the following introduced the famous Persian festival of Nauroj in India?
(a) Balban
(b) Firoz Tughlaq
(c) Iltumish
(d) Alauddin Khilji
Ans : (a)

30. Balban’s greatest achievement was
(a) Curbing of the power of nobles
(b) Establishment of peace and security.
(c) Defense against the Mongols
(d) suppression of revolts.
Ans : (b)

311. Name the metals of the coins Tanka, Shashgani and Jital of the Sultanate period.
(a) Silver, silver, copper
(b) Gold, silver, copper
(c) Silver, bronze, copper
(d) Gold, bronze copper
Ans : (b)

32. Which of the following were not included in the market regulation introduced by Alauddin Khilji?
I. the Sultan fixed the prices of food grains far below the usual rates.
2. He imported the necessaries by relaxing import duties.
3. He followed a non -intervention policy as far as the civil supplies was concerned.
4. Advances were given to merchants if they did not possess enough capital.
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans : (c)

33. Mohammad bin Tughlaq changed his capital from Delhi to Deo because he wanted to
(a) improve trade in the Deccan
(b) spread Islam in the Deccan
(c) punish the people of Delhi
(d) escape from the Mongol invasion
Ans : (d)

34. During the early medieval period, the Rashtrakutas were a party to the tnpartite struggled for power. The other two parties were
(a)Sanas and Palas
(b)Cholas and Chalukyas
(c)Pratiharas and Palas
(d) Chauhans and Rathors
Ans : (c)

35. Who was assigned the first lqta in India by Mohammad Ghori?
(a) Shamsuddin Iltutmish
(b) Qutbuddin Aibak
(c) Tajuddin Yalduz
(d) Nasiruddin Qubacha
Ans : (b)

36. Which of the following statements are true regarding Muhammad bin Thghlaq?
1. He introduced measures to regulate markets.
2. He introduced monetary reforms.
3. He increased the taxes paid by the people of the doab region.
4. He invited leaders of different faiths for religious discussions.

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4
Ans : (b

37. Under which Sultan, Khalisa land increased considerably?
(a) Ghiasuddin Balban
(b) Alauddin Khilji
(c) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
(d) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
Ans : (b)

38. Which of the following is not one of the features of the economic regulations of Alauddin Khalji?
(a) Use of correct measures
(b) Prices fixed being calculated on the basis of production cost
(c) Total curbing of black marketing
(d) Organization of separate markets for separate commodities
Ans : (d)

39. Who among the following were famous jurists of medieval India?
1. Vijnanesvara 2. Hemadri 3. Rajasekhara 4 limutavahana
(a) 1 and 4
(b) l, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4
Ans : (c)

40. Which of the following was the major source of royal income in medieval north India?
(a) Jaziyah
(b) Kharaj
(c) Zakat
(d) Tarkat
Ans : (a)

41. The capital of Shashanka was
(a) Suvaruagiri
(b) Mahasthangarh
(c) Toshali
(d) Karnasuvama
Ans : (d)

42. Which of the following Sultans established diplomatic, relations with China?
(a) Ibrahim Lodi
(b) Jallaluddin Khalji
(c) Balban
(d) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
Ans : (b)

43. In early medieval India, a tax known as Turush kadanda was collected by the
(a) Pratiharas
(b) Rashtrakutas
(c) Chauhans
(d) Gahadavalas
Ans : (a)


44. The Arab conquest of Sind took place in 71 2 A.D. under the leadership of
(a) Muhammad bin Kasim
(b) Subuktagin
(c)Mahmud Ghaznavi
(d) Qutub -ud-din
Ans : (a)


45. Which of the following was a saint of the Bhakti movement in Bengal?
(a) Kabir
(b) Tulsidas
(c) Vivekananda
(d) Chaitanya

Ans : (d)


46. Who among the following was not an exponent of Bhakti movement?
(a) Ramanada
(b) Kabir
(c) Shankaracharya
(d) Nanak
Ans : (d)

47. Sri Perumbudur, a temple town in south, is the birthplace of
(a) Ash Shankaracharya
(b) Vidyaranya
(c) Madhavacharya
(d) Ramanuja
Ans : (d)

48. Consider the following four saints:
1. Kabir 2. Nanak 3. Chaitanya 4. Tulsidas
What is the correct chronological order in which they flourished?
(a) 1, 2, 3,4
(b) 2,3,4,1
(c) 3,1,2,4
(d) 3,2,4,1
Ans : (a)

49. The pioneer in preaching Nirguna Bhakti in medieval India was
(a) Namadeva
(b) Vallabhacharya
(c) Ramananda
(d) Sri Chaitanya
Ans : (c)

50. Which of the following does not belong to Nirgun cult?
(a) Kabir
(b) Nanak
(c) Ravidas
(d) Meera
Ans : (d)

40 Solved Gk Questions for Exams

40 Solved Gk Questions for Exams
Some Solved General Knowledge Questions for Exams

1. Which of the following missiles and their respective ranges have been paired wrongly here?
(a) Akash - 27 km
(b) Nag - 2500 km
(c) Prithvi - 150 km
(d) Trishul - 9km
Ans. (c)

2. India’s first nuclear explosion was conducted in
(a) Trombay, Maharashtra
(b) Jaisalmer, Rajasthan
(c) Pokharan, Rajasthan
(d) Rann of Kutch, Gujarat
Ans. (c)

3. Match of the following:-
Tribe State
A. Bhils 1. Bihar
B. Santhals 2. Rajasthan
C. Todas 3. Madhya Pradesh
D. Gonds 4. Tamil Nadu
A B C D
(a) 1 2 4 3.
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 2 4 1 3
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (d)

4. Paradeep is a
(a) thermal power station
(b) port on the eastern coast of India
(c) port on the western coast of India
(d) None of these
Ans. (b)

5. The missile ‘Agni’ was launched from
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Kerala
(d) Orissa
Ans. (d)

6. The indigenously built missile recently inducted into the Indian Army is known as
(a) Akash
(b) Agni
(c) Trishul
(d) Prithvi
Ans. (d)

7. All the following cities are located on the banks of river Ganga except
(a) Calcutta
(b) Kanpur
(c) Haridwar
(d) Mathura
Ans. (d)

8. India’s biggest nuclear research reactor is known as
(a) Purnima
(b) Apsara
(c) Dhruva
(d) Cirus
Ans. (c)

9. India’s first long range missile is
(a) Nag
(b) Trishul
(c) Prithvi
(d) Agni
Ans. (d)

10. Which one of the following places is well known for diamond cutting and polishing industry?
(a) Surat
(b) Jaipur
(c) Kanchipurarn
(d) Bombay
Ans. (b)

11. NEFA is the old name of
(a) Karnataka
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Nagaland
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (d)

12. From the following, the tribals of Tamil Nadu living in Nilgiris are
(a) Uralis
(b) Kolam
(c) Todas
(d) Chenchus
Ans. (c)

13. Nilgiri, Himgiri and Beas are
(a) aircraft carrier ships
(b) frigates
(c) nuclear submarines
(d) Oil tankers of ONGC
Ans. (b)

14. Kaiga in Karnataka is famous for
(a) nuclear plant
(b) ancient fort
(c) fertilizer plant
(d) cement plant
Ans. (a)

15. Kuki Tribes which were recently in the news, are mainly inhabited in which of the following states?
(a) Nagaland
(b) Manipur
(c) Assam
(d) Sikkim
(e) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (b)

16. Which one of the following is not situated on the bank of river Godavari?
(a) Nanded
(b) Khammam
(c) Rajamundry
(d) Nasik
Ans. (b)

17. The ballistic missile Agni tested by India has a maximum range of
(a) 1000 km
(b) 1500 km
(c) 2000 km
(d) 2500 km
Ans. (b)

18. The biggest Public Sector undertaking in the country is
(a) iron & steel plants
(b) roadways
(c)railways
(d) airways
Ans. (c)

19. Which is India’s main battle tank inducted in the army recently?
(a) Trishul
(b) Arjun
(c) Nag
(d) Lakshya
Ans. (b)

20. Which one of the following is the correct sequence in decreasing other of the population sizes of the given cities as per the 1991 census.
(a) Calcutta, Bombay, Madras, Delhi
(b) Bombay, Calcutta, Madras, Delhi
(c) Calcutta, Bombay, Delhi, Madras
(d) Bombay, Calcutta, Delhi, Madras
Ans. (d)

21. Which of the following states has achieved the highest literacy rate?
(a) Haryana
(b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Maharashtra
Ans. (c)

22. During the 1981-1991 period, the population of which one of the following states had registered the maximum growth rate?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Nagaland
(d) Sikkim
Ans. (c)

23. Which of the following is the second most literate state?
(a) Kerala
(b) West Bengal
(c) Karnataka
(d) Mizoram
Ans. (d)

24. What is the approximate literacy rate as per 1991 data?
(a) 43%
(b) 48%
(c) 53%
(d) 58%
(e) 65%
Ans. (c)

25. According to the recent survey, -which state has the highest per capita income?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Delhi
(d) Maharashtra
Ans. (c)

26. The total population of India according to 1991 census is
(a) 841 million
(b) 842 million
(c) 843 million
(4) 844 million
Ans. (d)

27. Which one of the following is correctly matched in the light of 1991 census?
(a) Andhra Pradesh : Land-man ratio is lowest
(b) West Bengal : Sex ratio is highest
(c) Kerala : Density of population is highest
(d) Tamil Nadu : Sex ratio is lowest
Ans. (a)

28. According to the figures of the 1991 census, the total male population in India was nearly
(a) 30.7 crore
(b) 35.7 crore
(c) 43.7 crore
(d) 45.7 crore
Ans. (c)

29. Which of the following states has the slowest rate of population growth as per 1991 census?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Kerala
(c) Goa
(d) Nagaland
Ans. (b)

30. Which one of the following is the group of states that have shown a net rise in population during 1981 - 91 according to 1991 census?
(a) Punjab, Gujarat and Rajasthan
(b) Tamil Nadu, Maharashtra and Gujarat
(c) Maharashtra, Gujarat and Kerala
(4) Tamil Nadu, Kerala and Punjab
Ans. (d)

31. As per the recent data available (1991 census), which of the following represents the national average of tribal literacy in India?
(a) 10.92%
(b) 16.85%
(c) 19,90%
(d) 20.35%
(e) None of these
Ans. (e)

32. The population of India as per 1991 census reports is increasing at an average annual rate of
(a) 2.11
(b) 2.35
(c) 2.5
(d) 2.7
Ans. (a)

33. In India, women workers constitute approximately what percent of the total women population as per the latest figures available (1991 census)
(a) 21.40 %
(b) 22.69 %
(c) 26.80 %
(d) 31.74 %
(e) 42.26 %
Ans. (b)

34. Among the following groups of states, which one is having literacy rate in the range of 38% - 44%?
(a) Rajasthan, West Bengal, UP., Bihar
(b) Bihar, Karnataka, U.P., M.P
(c) Bihar, UP., M.P, Rajasthan
(d) Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Bihar, Orissa
Ans. (c)

35. The growth rate of population in India between 1981 and 1991 was
(a) 19.95%
(b) 23.85%
(c) 27.15%
(d) 31.85%
Ans. (b)

36. According to the recent survey, which state has the highest per capita income?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Delhi
(d) Maharashtra
Ans. (c)

37. Which of the following states in India is least populated as per the l991 census?
(a) Mizoram
(b) Nagaland
(c) Goa
(d) Sikkim
(e) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (e)

38. Ratio of women to men in India according to 1991 census is
(a) 0.921
(b) 0:929
(c) 0.936
(d) 0.942
Ans. (a)

39. As per the 1991 census, Kerala registered the lowest fertility rate among the states in India.
This has been attributed to the
(a) small population of child-bearing age
(b) high overall literacy rate
(c) high rate of literacy among women
(d) high level of urbanization
Ans. (b)

40. As per the 1991 census, what percentage of the total population was in the urban areas?
(a) 11
(b) 18
(c) 21
(d) 25
(e) 26
Ans. (e)

MCQ General knowledge india

MCQ General knowledge india
MCQ GK Quiz on India

1. As per 1991 census reports, which of the following is not true?
(a) The country’s population was enumerated at 844 million.
(b) India and China together account for more than 1/3rd of the world’s population.
(c) There is a deterioration in the number of females per thousand males
(d) Average annual population growth rate is 2.35 percent
(e) None of these.
Ans. (d)

2. The area declared as a ‘Biosphere Reserve’ is
(a) Nilgiris
(b) Gulf of Mannar
(c) Nokrek
(d) Manas
Ans. (a)

3. Which state has proportionately the largest area covered by forests?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Nagaland
Ans. (c)

4. Which of the following statements regarding the natural vegetation of India are true?
1. The high rainfall areas have dense tropical forests.
2. The moderate rainfall areas have monsoon forests.
3. The low rainfall areas have temperate grasslands.
(a) l, 2, 3
(b) l and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1 and 3
Ans. (a)

5. The tropical ever forest in India is found in
(a) Kerala
(b) Gujarat
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Jammu & Kashmir
Ans. (b)

6. Canal irrigation is largely practised in
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Tamil Nadu
Ans. (c)

7. The Himalayas are formed by
(a) orogenic forces
(b) centrifugal forces
(c) tectonic forces
(d) epirogenic forces
Ans. (c)

8. The Indian Wild Ass, largely confined to the Rann of Kutch, is fast becoming an endangered species because of
(a) insufficient vegetation
(b) large scale domestication
(c) excessive depredation
(d) poaching
Ans. (a)

9. The dense vegetation in Rajasthan is found in
(a) the Chambal valley
(b) Central Rajasthan
(c) along the Indira Gandhi canal
(d) Aravalli ranges
Ans. (d)

10. The most important fisheries in India are
(a) off-shore
(b) natural inland
(c) deep sea
(d) cultural inland
Ans. (a)

11. Indian forests with conifers are largely distributed in the state of
(a) Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, UP.
(b) M.P., Maharashtra, Kerala
(c) Assam, West Bengal, Gujarat
(d) Tripura, Orissa, Tamil Nadu
Ans. (a)

12. Which of the following river groups flows into the Bay of Bengal?
(a) Narmada, Ganga, Bhramaputra
(b) Krishna, Godavari, Tapti
(c) Ganga, Yamuna, Ravi
(d) Godavari, Bhramaputra, Ganga
(e) Kaveri, Krishna, Narmada
Ans. (d)

13. India’s first launch vehicle SLV-3 was launched from SHAR centre at
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Car Nicobar
(c) Sriharikota
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

14. The Korba, the Super Thermal Power Station, which has become the largest in the country, is located in
(a) Goa
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Orissa
(d) Maharashtra
Ans. (b)

15. Among the marine fishes of Bombay, one of the common variety is
(a) Mackerel
(b) Sardine
(c) Catfish
(d) Soles
Ans. (a)

16. To which of the following types does the natural vegetation in the Western Ghats belong?
(a) Deciduous
(b) Alpine
(c) Evergreen
(d) Mangrove
(e) None of these
Ans. (c)

17. The state of Madhya Pradesh has common borders with
(a) 5 states
(b) 6 states
(c) 7 states
(d) 8 states
Ans. (d)

18 The only state in India to have a common border with the state of Sikkim is
(a) Assam
(b) Bihar
(c) West Bengal
(d) Arunachal Pradesh
Ans. (c)

19. Indira Gandhi Canal originates from
(a) Gandhi Sagar Dam
(b) Hirakud Dam
(c) Harike barrage
(d) Bhakra Dam
Ans. (c)

20. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Kolhapur : Maharashtra
(b) Shimoga : Kerala
(c) Allepey : Karnataka
(d) Murshidabad : Gujarat
Ans. (a)

21. In the Deccan peninsula, the natural vegetation is mainly controlled by
(a) altitude.
(b) soil conditions
(c) rainfall
(d) irrigation
Ans. (c)

22. Marble is mainly found in
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan
Ans. (d)

23. Which one of the following was earlier known as the Lushai Hills District?
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Tripura
(c) Nagaland
(d) Mizoram
Ans. (d)

24. Which of the following is the largest district of Rajasthan?
(a) Jaipur
(b) Bikaner
(c) Jodhpur
(d) Jaisalmer
Ans. (d)

25. Which of the following states has the maximum urban population?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) West Bengal
Ans. (a)

26. Which of the following is correctly matched?
(a) Nasik : Gujarat
(b) Ernakulam : Andhra Pradesh
(c) Bolangir : Orissa
(d) Mandya : Rajasthan
Ans. (c)

27. India’s feeder airline is known as
(a) l. A
(b) Vayudoot
(c) Air Asiatic
(d) U.B. Air
Ans. (b)

28. In Rajasthan, rich deposits of marble mostly occur in the district of
(a) Ajmer
(b) Kota
(c) Nagaur
(d) Bikaner
Ans. (c)

29. The Terai areas of North India have over- abundance of surface water because of
(a) the heavy rains throughout the year
(b) abundance of natural springs
(c) rivers with flat valleys spread water over large areas
(d) large scale seepage of water from Bhabars in north
Ans. (b)

30. I. R. S - l B is
(a) a research station set up by India in Antarctica
(b) an Indian space station in Bangalore
(c) an Indian remote sensing satellite
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)

31. Obra, where a large thermal power station has been built, is in
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Uttar Pradesh
(d) Bihar
Ans. (c)

32. Which of the following mountain ranges is spread over only one state in India?
(a) Sahyadri
(b) Ajanta
(c) Satpura
(d) Aravalli
Ans. (b)

33. River Chambal flows through
(a) U.P., Rajasthan and Gujarat
(b) U.R, M.P. and Bihar
(c) U.P., M.P. and Rajasthan
(d) Maharashtra, UP. and Gujarat
Ans. (c)

34. Which of the following best describes Vikram Immarsat?
(a) India’s first indigenously built satellite
(b) India’s newly acquired RADAR system
(c) India’s first Inter Continental Ballistic Missile
(d) India’s first satellite mobile communication land-earth station
Ans. (d)

35. India’s first Ladies Special’ suburban train was started by which of the following zones of Indian Railways?
(a) Northern
(b) Central
(c) Western
(d) Southern
(e) Eastern
Ans. (c)

36. The most advanced launch vehicle in India incorporating cryo-engine technology is going to be
(a) SLV
(b) ASLY
(c) GSLV
(d) PSLV
Ans. (c)

37. The Narmada originates in
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d Madhya Pradesh
(e) Karnataka
Ans. (d)

38. The Them dam is built on
(a) Sutlej
(b) Chenab
(c) Jhelum
(d) Ravi
Ans. (d)

39. Consider the following two statements:
1. Development of the Luni river in western Rajasthan is aided by the German Development Bank.
2. Some water supply projects in Kerala are assisted by the Dutch Government.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) None
Ans. (c)

40. Given below is a list of ports of the western coast of India:
1. Marmugao
2. Ratnagiri
3. Quilon
4. Okha
Which of the following represents them in their logical order from north to south?
(a) l, 4, 2, 3
(b) 2, 4, 3, 1
(c) 3, 1, 4, 2
(d) 4, 2, 1, 3
Ans. (d)

Model Paper For LIC AAO Exam

Model Paper For LIC AAO Exam
Sample paper LIC AAO Exam
1. When was Television separated from Akashvani (radio) as an independent organization?

(1) 1959

(2) 1965

(3) 1976

(4) 1982

Ans. (3)

2. When water condenses into ice

(l) heat is absorbed

(2) heat is released

(3) heat remains unchanged

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

3. Which of the following inert gases is not found in atmosphere?

(1) Xenon

(2) Argon

(3) Helium

(4) Radon

Ans. (4)

4. Which of the following diffuses at the fastest rate?

(1) Solid

(2) Gas

(3) Liquid

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

5. What temperature at Celsius scale is equal to 300°K.?

(1) 30°C

(2) 27°C

(3) 300°C

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

6. The United Nations imposed sanctions on?? ­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­­recently due to nuclear issue.

(1) Japan

(2) China

(3) North Korea

(4) South Korea

Ans. (3)

7. The capital of Pandya dynasty was

(1) Mysore

(2) Kanchipuram

(3) Madurai

(4) Dwarsamudra

Ans. (3)

8. Tripitak a religious scripture of

(1) Jainism

(2) Hinduism

(3) Buddhism

(4) Muslim

Ans. (3)

9 Who is the writer of ‘Adhe— Adhure’?

(1) Mohan Rakesh

(2) Premchand

(3) S.K. Tripathi ‘Nirala’

(4) Ashok Vajpayee

Ans. (1)

10. By which Constitutional amendment, fundamental duties were incorporated in the Indian Constitution?

(1) 42nd

(2) 43rd

(3) 44th

(4) 39th

Ans. (1)

11. The headquarters of Central Food Technology Research Institute is located in

(1) Delhi

(2) Anand

(3) Ahmedabad

(4) Mysore

Ans. (4)

12. Which is common in Jainism and Buddhism both?

(1) Non-violence

(2) Violence

(3) Fast

(4) Way of worship

Ans. (1)

13. Light Year is used to measure

(1) intensity of light

(2) mass

(3) time

(4) astronomical distance

Ans. (4)

14. Which of the following is used in the ripening of fruits?

(1) Ethylene

(2) Nitrogen

(3) Carbon dioxide

(4) Hydrogen

Ans. (1)

15. Which of the following was’ involved in Alipore bomb case?

(1) Aurobindo Ghosh

(2) P.C. Benerjee

(3) Bipin Chandra Pal

(4) Subhash Chandra Bose

Ans. (1)

16. The Sikh Guru Arjun Dev was assassinated during the rule of

(1) Humayun

(2) Akbar

(3) Shahjehan

(4) Jehangir

Ans. (4)

17. In an organic compound, which element is generally present in addition to hydrogen?

(1) Phosphorus

(2) Sulphur

(3) Nitrogen

(4) Carbon

Ans. (4)

18. The process by which energy is generated In’ the sun is the

(1) fusion of Uranium

(2) fusion of Helium

(3) fusion of Hydrogen

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

19. What is the source of electric energy in an artificial satellite?

(1) a mini nuclear reactor

(2) a dynamo

(3) a thermopile

(4) solar cells

Ans. (4)

20. Ramanuja preached

(1) Ahimsa

(2) Gyan

(3) Bhakti

(4) The vedas

Ans. (3)

21. Who did not participate in the revolt of 1857?

(1) Rani Lakshmibai

(2) Bhagat Singh

(3) Tantya Tope

(4) Nana Saheb

Ans. (2)

22. On October 17, 1940, the individual Satyagraha was inaugurated by

(1) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

(2) Jawaharlal Nehru

(3) M.K. Gandhi

(4) Acharya Vinoba Bhave

Ans. (4)

23. The biggest producer of fish in the world is

(1) China

(2) Russia

(3) Japan

(4) Norway

Ans. (1)

24. In which state is Silent Valley located?

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) Kerala

(3) Assam

(4) Arunachal Pradesh

Ans. (2)

25. Who decides whether a bill is a Money Bill or not?

(1) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(2) Prime Minister

(3) President

(4) Parliamentary Committee

Ans. (1)

26. Solid carbon dioxide is called

(1) soft ice

(2) dry ice

(3) white ice

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

27. When 1 kg of a liquid is converted from liquid to vapour, the absorbed heat is called (1) latent heat of vaporization.

(2) latent heat of fusion of ice

(3) latent heat of sublimation

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

28. Should all universities start taking on-line admission with immediate effect at all levels in the entire country?

(i) No, because every student has no easy access to internet

(ii) Yes, it will free the students and their parents from long standing problem of knocking at the doors of different colleges and queuing up.

(1) Only argument (i) is strong

(2) Only argument (ii) is strong

(3) Neither argument (i) nor (ii) is strong

(4) Both the arguments (i) and (ii) are strong

Ans. (4)

29. Product Fair and Lovely is related to

(1) Rocket Benkisar

(2) ITC

(3) P and G

(4) HLL

Ans. (3)

30. Should government make it compulsory that all private medical institutions be included in the general admission test conduct ed by the government?

(i) No, private institutions should have the right so that they decide their own admission strategy that is more suitable for work management.

(ii) Yes, all medical institutions whether private or government should adopt same ad mission standard.

(1) Only argument (i) is strong

(2) Only argument (ii) is strong

(3) Either argument (i) or (ii) is strong

(4) Neither argument (i) nor (ii) is strong

Ans. (1)

31. In case the President of India decides to resign, he will address his letter of resignation to

(1) Prime Minister

(2) Chief Justice

(3) Speaker of Lok Sabha

(4) Vice-President

Ans. (4)

32. The metal extracted from Bauxite is

(1) Silver

(2) Copper

(3) Manganese

(4) Aluminum

Ans. (4)

33. They Cyclone represent a position of atmosphere in which

(1) Low pressure in the centre and high pressure around

(2) There is high pressure in the centre and low pressure around

(3) There is low pressure all around

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

34. ‘Sea of Tranquility’ is the name given to

(1) Atlantic Ocean

(2) A specific area of Antarctica

(3) A specific area on moon’s surface

(4) None f these

Ans. (4)

35. Capital of Pallavas was

(1) Arcot

(2) Kanchi

(3) Malkhed

(4) Banvasi

Ans. (2)

36. Onam is an important festival of

(1) Tamil Nadu

(2) Kerala

(3) Andhra Pradesh

(4) Karnataka

Ans. (2)

37. How much does our body contain water by mass?

(1) 65%

(2) 70%

(3) 60%

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

38. What determines the sex of a child?

(1) Chromosomes of the father

(2) Chromosomes of the mother

(3) RH factor of the parents

(4) Blood group of the father

Ans. (1)

39. The two civilizations which helped in the formation of Gandhara School of Arts are:

(1) Indian and Roman

(2) Indian and Egyptian

(3) Greek and Roman

(4) Indian and Greek

Ans. (1)

40. ‘Thinkpad’ is a laptop associated with which of the following companies?

(1) HP

(2) TCS

(3) Infosys

(4) IBM

Ans. (1)

41. The first summit of SAARC was held at

(1) Kathmandu

(2) Colombo

(3) New Delhi

(4) Dhaka

Ans. (4)

42. The wire of flash bulb is made of

(1) Copper

(2) Barium

(3) Magnesium

(4) Silver

Ans. (3)

43. The curves showing the volume temperature behaviour of gases plotted at different fixed pressures are called

(1) isochors

(2) isobars

(3) V.T.P. curves

(4) isocurves

Ans. (2)

44. Project Tiger was launched in

(1) 1973

(2) 1976

(3) 1978

(4) 1983

Ans. (1)

45. How many letters in the word TRYST have as many letters between them as in the alphabet?

(1) None

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

46. From the alternatives, select the set which is most alike the set (23, 29, 31).

(1) (17, 21, 29)

(2) (31, 37, 49)

(3) (13, 15, 23)

(4) (41, 43, 47)

Ans. (4)

47. What should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following number series?

13 13 65 585 7605 129285?

(1) 2456415

(2) 2235675

(3) 2980565

(4) 2714985

Ans. (4)

48. If “VEHEMENT” is written as “VEHETNEM” then in that code how will you code. “MOURN FUL”?

(1) MOURLUFN

(2) MOUNULFR

(3) OURMNFUL

(4) URNFULMO

Ans. (1)

49. MOLLIFY is to APPEASE as APPURTENANCE is to?

(1) gratify

(2) avarice

(3) accessory

(4) amend

Ans. (3)

50. Praduman is older than Janaki; Shreshtha is older than Kshama; Ravindra is not as old as Shreshtha but is older than Janaki. Kshama is not as old as Janaki.

Who is the youngest?

(1) Praduman

(2)Janaki

(3) Shreshtha

(4) Kshama

Ans. (4)

51. In a row of children facing North, Bharat is eleventh from the right end and is third to the right of Samir who is fifteenth from the left end. Total how many children are there in the row?

(1) 29

(2) 28

(3) 30

(4) 27

Ans. (2)

52. Which number is missing?

1, 9, 25, 49?

(1) 121

(2) 81

(3) 16

(4) 169

Ans. (2)

53. In the word CALIBRE, the previous letter in the English alpha bet replaces each consonant and each vowel is replaced by the next letter and then the order of letters is reversed, which letter will be third from the right end?

(1) A

(2) C

(3) B

(4) K

Ans. (4)

54. How many such digits are there in the number 57683421, each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in descending order within the number?

(1) One

(2) Two

(3) Three

(4) More than three

Ans. (4)

Directions (55, 56, 57) : In the following questions there are two words to the left of the sign (::). which are connected in some way. The same relationship exists between the third word and one of the four alternatives under it. Find the correct alternative in each case.

55. Medicine : Sickness: : Book:?

(1) Ignorance

(2) Knowledge

(3) Author

(4) Teacher

Ans. (1)

56. River: Dam: : Traffic:?

(1) Signal

(2) Vehicle

(3) Motion

(4) Lane

Ans. (4)

57. Session: Concludes: : ? : Lapses

(1) Leave

(2) Permit

(3) Agent

(4) Policy

Ans. (4)

58. If 16 = 11, 25 = 12, 36 = 15, then 49 =

(1) 14

(2) 20

(3) 19

(4) 17

Ans. (2)

59. Pick out the stranger in the following:

(1) The Ramayan

(2) The Mahabharata

(3) The Geeta

(4) Godan

Ans. (4)

60. KEATS = 56, SHELLEY = 86, BROWNING =?

(1) 45

(2) 37

(3) 50

(4)102

Ans. (4)

Directions (61—62): What approximate value should come in place of the question mark (?) in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value)

61. (9321 + 5406 ÷ 1001) (498 + 929 + 660) =?

(1) 13.5

(2) 4.5

(3) 16.5

(4) 7.5

Ans. (4)

62. 561204 x .58 =? x 55555

(1) 606

(2) 646

(3) 586

(4) 716

Ans. (3)

63. The difference between the greatest number and the smallest number of 5 digits formed by 0, 1, 2, 3 and 4 using all but. once is:

(1) 32976

(2) 32679

(3) 32769

(4) None of these.

Ans. (1)

64. Area of a parallelogram whose base is 9 cm and height 4 cm is ? sq cm.

(1) 9

(2) 4

(3) 36

(4) 13

Ans. (3)

65. The number which is neither prime nor composite is

(1) 0

(2) 1

(3) 3

(4) 2

Ans. (2)

66. The length of a room is three times its breadth. If the perimeter of the room is 64 cm, then its breadth is ?cm.

(1) 64

(2) 32

(3) 16

(4) 8

Ans. (4)

67. Aditi read 4/5 th of Tintin comic book which has 100 pages. How many pages of the

book is not yet read by Aditi?

(1) 40

(2) 60

(3) 80

(4) 20

Ans. (4)

68. What is the meaning of the word ‘beckon’?

(1) gestictilate

(2) did not signal

(3) did not call

(4) invite

Ans. (1)

69. A box contains coins (equal number of every one) of rupee and half rupee, coins of 25 paise, 10 paise 5 paise value, 2 paise value and one paise value. The total value of coins in the box is Rs. .1158. Find the number of coins of each value.

(1) 500

(2) 400

(3) 700

(4) 600

Ans. (4)

70. The area of a rhombus with diagonals 12cm arid 20cm is — sq cm.

(1) 120

(2) 12

(3) 20

(4) 240

Ans. (1)

71. A piece of road is one kilo- meter in length. We have to supply lamp posts. One post at each end, distance between two consecutive lamp posts is 25 meters The number of lamp posts required is:

(1) 41

(2) 51

(3) 61

(4) 42

Ans. (1)

72. There are 800 students in a class. On one particular day, if 1 of the students were absent; 10

How many students were present?

(1) 700

(2) 650

(3) 720

(4) 750

Ans. (3)

73. The quotient in a division sum is 403. The divisor is 100 and the remainder is 58, the dividend is

(1) 40458

(2) 34058

(3) 43058

(4) 40358

Ans. (4)

74. A labourer was engaged for 25 days on the condition that for every day, he works, he will be paid Rs 2 and for every day, he is absent he will be fined 50 paise.

If he receives only Rs. 37.50, find the number of days he was absent.

(1) 5

(2) 6

(3) 7

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

75. Which least number should be added to 2600 to make it a perfect square?

(1) 3

(2) 9

(3) 1

(4) 5

Ans. (3)

76. The unit of radioactivity is

(1) megavolt

(2) curie

(3) weber

(4) quark

Ans. (2)

77. When 782 is subtracted from the square of a number, the answer is 6460. What is that number?

(1) 109

(2) 113

(3) 112

(4) 115

Ans. (3)

78. The difference between 42% and 28% of a number is 210. What will be 59% of that number?

(1) 900

(2) 420

(3) 885

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

79. Ellora caves of Maharashtra were built during the rule of

(1) Rashtrakuta

(2) Pallava

(3) Pal

(4) Chola

Ans. (1)

80. The first split in Indian National Congress took place at

(1) Surat

(2) Ca1cutta

(3) Allahabad

(4) Madras

Ans. (1)

81. Gingerisa

(1) transformed flower

(2) transformed root

(3) transformed stem

(4) transformed leaf

Ans. (3)

82. The famous Kalinga war was fought near

(1) Udaygiri

(2) Nauli

(3) Balasore

(4) Barabati

Ans. (1)

83. Mig fighter plane manufacturing unit in Orissa is located at

(1) Brahmapur

(2) Sunaveda

(3) Cuttack

(4) Sambalpur

Ans. (2)

Directions (84—85): Choose the correct passive voice of the sentence at the question place.

84. I remember my father taking me to the zoo

(1) I remember taken to the zoo by my father

(2) I remember being taken to the zoo by my father

(3) I remembered my father taking me to the zoo

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

85. Have you shut the door?

(1) Has the door been shut by you?

(2) Have the door been shut by you?

(3) Has the door been shut?

(4) Have the door being shut by you?

Ans. (1)

Directions (86 - 87) Choose the single word substitution for the group of words.

86. The motive to earn money

(1) merchant

(2) mercenary

(3) matinee

(4) materialistic

Ans. (2)

87. The state of being without wife

(1.) saint

(2) bigot

(3) celibacy

(4) bigamy

Ans. (3)

Directions (88—90): In the following questions there is an error in the one part of each sentence. Choose that part.

88. A towny man (1)/gets (2)/a lot of (3)/comforts (4).

Ans. (1)

89. Standing (1)/on the roof (2) helicopter(3)/flew over me (4)

Ans. (1)

90. A motor car which (1) / weighs less then (2) / two tons may be(3) / driven across the bridge (4)

Ans. (2)

Directions (91—95): Fill In the blanks with appropriate words.

91. A third world — will destroy everything.

(1) fight

(2) battle

(3) war

(4) avenge

Ans. (3)

92. He accepted with thanks some humble presents ? me.

(1) of

(2) from

(3) with

(4) by

Ans. (2)

93. Education helps us ? ourselves to even unfavorable circumstances.

(1) adapt

(2) adept

(3) adopt

(4) except

Ans. (1)

94. Several goats were sacrificed at the ? .

(1) alter

(2) altar

(3) allusion

(4) illusion

Ans. (2)

95. The news is too good ? be credible.

(1) to

(2) for

(3) than

(4) with

Ans. (1)

96. The antonym of the word ‘crude’ is

(1) dear

(2) refined

(3) shallow

(4) wild

Ans. (2)

97. The synonym of the word ‘sparked’ is

(1) flickered

(2) flashed

(3) enlivened

(4) provoked

Ans. (2)

98.



(1) 4

(2) 0.5

(3) 1

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

99. If 32 = 2x then x = ?

(1) 15

(2) 4

(3) 5

(4) 8

Ans. (3)

100. Fill in the next number in the series.

2 5 8 11 14 ?

(1) 18

(2) 17

(3) 19

(4) 16

Ans. (2)

Solved Gk Quiz for TGT PGT in KVS

Solved Gk Quiz for TGT PGT in KVS
general Awareness for teachers exams

1. The Buland Darwaja is related to

(1) Shershah

(2) Babur

(3) Akbar

(4) Jehangir

Ans. (3)

2. The Military Games were held in Hyderabad from October 17, 2007 to October 27, 2007.Which country won the highest number of medals?

(1) China

(2) Russia

(3) India

(4) Japan

Ans. (2)

3. The Railways gets the maximum income from

(1) Goods freight

(2) Passenger’s fares

(3) Advertisement

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

4. What is sound?

(1) Energy

(2) Heat

(3) Magnet

(4) Ray

Ans. (1)

5. The chief source of heat energy is

(1) Sun light

(2) Biogas

(3) Electricity

(4) Natural gas

Ans. (1)

6. The Aravalli hills are located in

(1) Madhya Pradesh

(2) Rajasthan

(3) Assam

(4) Jharkhand

Ans. (2)

7. A plant can be disease resistant due to

(1) Pesticides

(2) Virus

(3) Fungi

(4) Bacteria

Ans. (1)

8. Which of the following Chief Ministers served for the longest tenure?

(1) Lalu Prasad

(2) Jyoti Basu

(3) Ms. Mayawati

(4) M. Karunanidhi

Ans. (2)

9. Which of the following straits separates Europe from Africa?

(1) Berring

(2) Dobar

(3) Gibralter

(4) Mulucca

Ans. (3)

10. The UN Climate Change conference was organized in Bali from December 3, 2007 to December 14, 2007 for 12 days in which 1000 people participated .Bali is situated in

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Morocco

(4) China

Ans. (1)

11. The description of caste system is found in

(1) Rig Veda

(2) Sam Veda

(3) Yajurva Veda

(4) Atharva Veda

Ans. (1)

12. Who is called the Akbar of Kashmir?

(1) Janulabeddin

(2) Sikandar

(3) Queen Didda

(4) Emperor Sangram Singh

Ans. (1)

13. The Border Road Organization comes under

(1) Defense

(2) Urban Development

(3) Corporate sector

(4) Private sector

Ans. (1)

14. Which of the following corporations was started first by the Government of India?

(1) Damodar Valley Corporation

(2) National Thermal Power Corporation

(3) National Hydel Power Corporation

(4) All the above

Ans. (1)

15. Which of the following is not a part of three gems of the Buddhism?

(1) Buddha

(2) Sangha

(3) Dhamma

(4) Ahimsa

Ans. (4)

16. Who was the first Indian to reach Antarctica?

(1) Rakesh Sharma

(2) G.S. Sirohi

(3) B.K. Dutta

(4) K. Karuna Nautial

Ans. (2)

17. A saturated solution at S.T.P. is

(1) Colorless

(2) Green

(3) Red

(4) Red and green

Ans. (1)

18. The pure element in the following is

(1) Glass

(2) Diamond

(3) Lime

(4) Salt

Ans. (2)

19. What is gypsum?

(1) Lime

(2) Bleaching powder

(3) Blue vitriol

(4) Ammonium chloride powder

Ans. (3)

20. Bones of horses of Harappan civilization were found at

(1) Lothal

(2) Harappa

(3) Surkotada

(4) Mohanjodero

Ans. (3)

21. What is Ag-mark?

(1) Technique to increase agricultural productivity

(2) Green Revolution

(3) Test of purity in the production of vegetable oil etc.

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

22. Who has taken the highest number of wickets in Test Cricket?

(11) Muttiah Muralitharan

(2) Shane Warne

(3) Anil Kumble

(4) Shoaib Akhtar

Ans. (1)

23. In 1947, 532 princely states were annexed to India except three. Which of the following was not among the three princely states?

(1) Junagarha

(2) Bhavnagar

(3) Hyderabad

(4) Kashmir

Ans. (4)

24. Which of the following gases is used to prepare Ammonia gas?

(1) Nitrogen and oxygen

(2) Nitrogen and oxide

(3) Nitrogen and hydrogen

(4) Nitrogen and carbon

Ans. (3)

25. In which of the following states of India, per capita income is highest?

(1) Orissa

(2) Assam

(3) Manipur

(4) Kerala

Ans. (4)

26. By import of — the inflation has been caused in India?

(1) Wheat

(2) Rice

(3) Sugar

(4) Petroleum

Ans. (4)

27. The meeting of Commonwealth Nations was held in Uganda on November 25, 2007. Who was elected its General Secretary?

(1) Mahesh Sharma

(2) Kamlesh Sharma

(3) Bimalesh Sharma

(4) Kailash Sharma

Ans. (2)

28. In which country the Hindu temples were razed to the ground in

December, 2007?

(1) Indonesia

(2) Malaysia

(3) Mauritius

(4) Afghanistan

Ans. (2)



Directions (29 — 33) : Read the following passage carefully and then answer the following questions on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage by choosing the best answer to each question out of given four options.

On hearing the news of the massacre at Jallianwala Bagh, Udham Singh did not attend his school but took a train to Armritsar and visited the spot. There, he stood for several minutes in a trance, picked up the soil, rubbed it on his forehead and put some in a phial. He fasted that night. According to his family members he placed fresh flowers on the holy dust every morning, drawing inspiration from it. One early morning he went to the river Ravi and pledged that he would Colour its waters with the colour of his blood, to create what he called the freedom’s flood. With this aim in view in 1921, he first landed in Africa. From there he went to America to meet the Indian revolutionaries working for the liberation of the motherland.

In 1923, he landed in England. In 1928, he returned to India in response to an urgent call from Bhagat Singh. When he reached Lahore, he was detained for violation of the Arms Act. He was released after four years rigorous imprisonment. In 1935, he escaped to Germany by giving a slip to the police. From Berlin, he reached Paris and purchased a revolver. He kept it ready for action and managed to reach London again. Opportunity came on March 13, 1940 when Sir Michael O’ Dwyer was to speak at a seminar in the Caxton Hall. As Sir Michael turned to resume his seat after the speech. Udham Singh pulled out his revolver and fired at him, Sir Michael died without a shriek. Udham

Singh was arrested and produced before the court on April 2, 1940. The court passed death sentence on him and he was hanged at Pentonville Prison, London on July 3, 1940.

29. Udham Singh went to America where he

(1) mobilized the Indian citizens for the liberation of the motherland

(2) collected sufficient funds to fight colonialism

(3) met fellow citizens working for the same cause

(4) went sight-seeing

Ans. (3)

30. Where did Udham Singh buy the weapon which was used for killing Sir Michael?

(1) Paris

(2) Lahore

(3) London

(4) Berlin

Ans. (1)

31. Udham Singh shot at Sir Michael O’Dwyer in

(1) Jallianwala Bagh

(2) Armritsar

(3) London

(4) Paris

Ans. (3)

32. When Udham Singh was arrest ed in Lahore, he was charged for

(1) instigating his countrymen against the Englishmen

(2) his links with anti-British forces

(3) concealing his identity and carrying on underground activities

(4) possessing unlicensed arms and ammunition

Ans. (4)

33. Udham Singh returned to India in 1928 mainly because he was:

(1) short of funds to meet his expenses

(2) to produce some arms from Lahore

(3) to escape from the British police

(4) called by a revolutionary in India

Ans. (4)

34. In the following question a word has been spelt in four different ways one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word:

(1) Assemblage

(2) Asemblage

(3) Assemmblage

(4) Accemblage

Ans. (1)

35. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives

The documents are available ? inspection.

(1) of

(2) about

(3) with

(4) for

Ans. (4)

36. In the following question, choose the Adjective.

(1) Preference

(2) Gifted

(3) Genius

(4) In vain

Ans. (2)

37. Write the synonym of the word ‘Consummate’.

(1) Novice

(2) Ambiguous

(3) Perfect

(4) Imperfect

Ans. (3)

38. Find out, which part of the following sentence has a grammatical or idiomatic error in it.

They have

(1)/held the championship

(2)/ since the past

(3)/ two years.

(4)

Ans. (3)

39. In the following question, a word has been spelt in four different ways, one of which is correct. Choose the correctly spelt word.

(1) demmurage

(2) demurrage

(3) demarrage

(4) demurage

Ans. (2)

40. In the following question, an idiomatic expression and its four possible meanings are given. Find out the correct meaning of the idiomatic expression and choose your correct answer from the given four choices:

Play one’s cards well

(1) A good gambler displaying skills

(2) A magician showing magic of cards

(3) Use means effectively

(4) A game of gamble

Ans. (3)

41. Out of the four alternatives, choose the one that can he substituted for .the given words/ phrase and mark it as your answer.

A cock and bull story

(1) An unbelievable gossip

(2) A children’s fable

(3) A quarrelsome dialogue

(4) A competition between un equal people

Ans. (1)

42. Choose the part of the following sentence containing error and mark it as your answer:

The number of orders(1). /

for that item have(2). /

increased greatly; several of them(3). /

have come from Egypt(4).

Ans. (2)

43. Identify the part of the following sentence containing an error and choose it as your answer.

In America(1)/

Presidential elections(2) /

is held every four years(3)

No error(4)

Ans. (3)

44. In the following sentence, fill in the blank by choosing correct option from the given alternatives:

‘Ram has annoyed his boss. He ? have to leave the job.

(1) might

(2) will

(3) ought to

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

45. In the following question, three words having different meanings of a certain word are given. Select that word from the answer choices marked (1), (2), (3) and (4).

Witness, Observer; Onlooker

(1) spectator

(2) present

(3) biased

(4) careful

Ans. (1)

46. For the following word written in capital letters, four words are listed below as (1),

(2) (3) and (4). Out of these, choose the word nearest in meaning to it as your answer:

VINDICATE

(1) approve

(2) justify

(3) express

(4) exonerate

Ans. (2)

47. In the following sentence, the bold part contains an error. Answer choice (1) repeats the original, other three are 1ifferent. If you think that the original sentence displays the best way of wording the bold part, choose your answer (1): otherwise select the best alternative from the other three choices.

“Parents and teachers are be coming increasingly concerned about protecting children and the drugs which are available to them, and several parent teacher organizations, dedicated to educating children about the dangers of drug addiction, have recently been formed.”

(1) protecting children and the drugs which are available to them

(2) protecting of children and the drugs which are available to them

(3) protecting children from the drugs available to them

(4) protecting children from the drugs availability to them

Ans. (3)

48. From the given four answer choices, select the answer that gives the clearest, most exact sentence, but do not change the meaning Of the bold part of original sentence.

Such people never have and never will be trusted.

(1) never have and never will be trusted

(2) never have and will be trust ed

(3) never have been trusted and never will be trusted

(4) never have and anyone trust them and never will have anyone

Ans. (3)

49. Which one of the following statements is untrue?

(1) The sea-floor is older than the land

(2) The first rocks were formed as a result of the cooling o. molten matter

(3) Sedimentary rocks are also called aqueous rocks because they were formed by

the agency of water

(4) Stalactites and stalagmites are deposits of lime found in caves

Ans. (3)

50. The main hydro electric power potential of the Indus river system lies in India and not in Pakistan because:

(1) the need for hydro-electric power is greater in India than in Pakistan

(2) India has superior technology to develop hydro—electric power

(3) India has a greater labour force to develop hydro electric power

(4) The mountain stages of these rivers lie in India

Ans. (4)

51. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below:

List-I List-II

(a) Cotton 1. Madhya Pradesh

(b) Gram 2.Gujarat

(c) Black Pepper 3. West Bengal

(d) Pine apple 4. Kerala

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 1 3 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (1)

52. In the production of tidal energy the maximum potential exists at:

(1) Bhavnagar

(2) Digboi

(3) Cochin

(4) Ladakh

Ans. (1)

53. The National Highway system is the responsibility of

(1) State governments

(2) Central governments

(3) Central and State governments

(4) Local body governments

Ans. (3)

54. Supersonic jets cause pollution by thinning of

(1) Sulphur dioxide layer

(2) Carbon dioxide layer

(3) Ozone layer

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

55. Which one of the following is commonly called Edible sponge mushroom’?

(1) Sargassum

(2) Morchella

(3) Agaricus

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

56. Which of the following is not an essential function of the skin in the human body?

(1) protects the internal or of the body

(2) acts as a sensory organ

(3) regulates the temperature of the body

(4) gives shape to the body

Ans. (4)

57. The device used for converting alternating current to direct current is called

(1) Inverter

(2) Rectifier

(3) Transmitter

(4) Transformer

Ans. (2)

58. Water is used in hot water bottles because:

(1) it is easily obtained in pure form

(2) it has high specific heat

(3) it is cheaper and not harmful

(4) it is easy to heat water

Ans. (2)

59. Mention the ray which appears to originate outside the earth.

(1) cosmic ray

(2) the ultra-violet ray

(3) the alpha ray

(4) the beta ray

Ans. (1)

60. A person cannot see objects clearly which are nearer than 75 cms from his eyes. What disease is he suffering from?

(1) Astigmatism

(2) Colour-blindness

(3) Myopia

(4) Hypermetropia

Ans. (4)

61. Oil rises up to wick in a lamp because

(1) oil is volatile

(2) oil is very light

(3) of the surface tension phenomenon

(4) of the diffusion of oil through the wick

Ans. (3)

62. Following Railway Training Institutes have been indicated with the cities where they are located. Find out which is wrongly matched.

(1) Railway Staff College — Vadodara

(2) Indian Railway Institute of Civil Engineering — Pune

(3) Indian Railway Institute of Mechanical and Electrical Engineering —Jamalpur

(4) Indian Railway Institute Signal and Tele Communication Engineering — Mumbai

Ans. (4)

63. Match List-I with List-II and choose the correct answer from the given four options:

List -I List-II

(Zonal Railway) (Head Quarter)

(a) North Central Railway 1. Bilaspur

(b) South-East Central Railway 2. Allahabad

(c) West Central Railway 3. Jabalpur

(d) East Coast Railway 4. Bhubaneshwar

Code.

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 3 4

(2) 1 2 3 4

(3) 2 3 4 1

(4) 4 1 3 2

Ans. (1)

64. In Indian Railways Network, approximately how many passenger service vehicles (passenger coaches) are working?

(1) 44,100

(2) 33.000

(3) 49,000

(4) 54,000

Ans. (2)

65. Who is the principal head of the Department of a Station Master in Zonal Railway Head Quarter Office?

(1) Chief Commercial Manager

(2) Chief Safety Officer

(3) Chief Personnel Officer

(4) Chief Operations Manager

Ans. (4)

66. Two new zones named North Western Railway and East Central Railway become functional/ operational from?

(1) October 1, 2002

(2) April 1, 2002

(3) April 1, 2003

(4) October 1, 2003

Ans. (1)

67. In one of the following State, though the Konkan Railway line does not pass through it, yet it has capital share in the K.R. Corporation. Name the State.

(1) Karnataka

(2) Goa

(3) Tamil Nadu

(4) Kerala

Ans. (3)

68. All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the Vice- President of India are decided by the

(1) High Court of a State

(2) Chief Election Commissioner

(3) Supreme Court of India

(4) President of India

Ans. (3)

69. Consider the following functionaries

1. Union Cabinet Secretary

2. Chief Election Commissioner

3. Union Cabinet Ministers

4. Chief Justice of India

Their correct sequence, in the order of precedence is

(1) 3, 4, 2, 1

(2) 4, 3, 1, 2

(3) 4, 3, 2, 1

(4) 3. 4, 1, 2

Ans. (3)

70. The basic structure theory of the Constitution of India implies that

(1) Certain features of the Constitution are so essential to it that they cannot be abrogated

(2) Fundamental Rights cannot be abridged or taken away

(3) The Constitution cannot be amended except in accordance with the procedure prescribed in Article 368

(4) The Preamble of the Constitution cannot be amended

Ans. (1)

71. Which of the following enjoys the constitutional status?

1. Finance Commission

2. Planning Commission

3. Zonal Council

4. National Development Council

5. Election Commission

6. University Grants Commission

(1) 1, 3 and 5

(2) l and 5

(3) 1, 2, 5 and 6

(4) 1, 3, 5 and 6

Ans. (2)

72. The ultimate responsibility of taking due action on the comments of the Comptroller and Auditor General vests with

(1) President of India

(2) Supreme Court of India

(3) Parliament of India

(4) National Development Council

Ans. (1)

73. Mohit said to Neelam, “Your only brother’s son is my wife’s brother.” How is Neelam related to the wife of Mohit?

(1) aunt

(2) mother-in-law

(3) sister

(4) cannot be determined

Ans. (1)

74. A tourist drives 10 km towards East and turns to right hand side and takes a drive of another 3 km. He then drives towards West (turning to his right) another 3 km. He then turns to his left and walks another 2 km. Afterwards, he turns to his right and travels 7 km. How far is he from his starting point and in which direction?

(1) 10 km—East

(2) 9 km— North

(3) 8 km— West

(4) 5 km—South

Ans. (4)

75. The question below is followed by two arguments numbered I and II. Decide the ‘Strong’ and ‘Weak’ arguments and give answer out of four given options ‘1’, ‘2’, ‘3’ and ‘4’

Question:

Should all the professional colleges in India be encouraged to run their own courses without affiliation to any university?

Arguments:

(I) Yes, this is the only way to create more opportunities for those who seek professional training.

(II) No, this will dilute the quality of professional training as all such colleges may not be equipped to conduct such courses.

(1) Only argument I is strong

(2) Only argument II is strong

(3) Both I and II are strong

(4) Neither I nor II is strong

Ans. (2)

76. Statement: “Please do not wait for me; I may be late, start taking lunch as soon as the guests arrive.” — a message from a director of a company to his office managers.-

Assumptions:

I. Keeping guests waiting is not desirable.

II. Lunch may not be ready in time.

Consider the above statement and two assumptions to decide as to which of the assumptions is implicit in the statement. Choose the correct answer from the given options 1, 2, 3 and 4.

(1) Only assumption I is implicit

(2) Only assumption II is implicit

(3) Both I and II are implicit

(4) Neither I nor II is implicit

Ans. (1)

77. How many Asian countries are there in Common wealth?

(1) 49

(2) 51

(3) 54

(4) 57

Ans. (3)

78. Khan Abdul Gaffer Khan’s which action; performed in favour of Indian independence, but was against the English men?

(1) Formation of Lal-Kurti sena

(2) Assassination of an Englishman

(3) Trade of red shirts

(4) Demand for Pakhtunistan

Ans. (1)

79. On selling an article for Rs. 270 there is a gain of 12.5%. What

is its cost price?

(1) Rs. 240

(2) Rs. 220

(3) Rs. 210

(4) Rs. 250

Ans. (1)

80. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 1: 2: 3. The greatest angle will be

(1) 60°

(2) 30°

(3) 90°

(4) 75°

Ans. (3)

81. The compound interest on Rs. 2500 at the rate of 6% p.a. after 2 years will be

(1) Rs. 309

(2) Rs. 318

(3) Rs. 320

(4) None of these

Ans. (1)

82. (999)<sup>2</sup> - (998)<sup>2</sup>2=?

(1) 1995

(2) 1998

(3) 1997

(4) 1992

Ans. (3)

83. A man covers a distance of 6 km at the rate 4 kmph and other 4 km at 3 kmph. His average speed is

(1) 9&13/7 kmph

(2) 3&9/17 kmph

(3) 5&9/17 kmph

(4) 3 & 5/9 kmph

Ans. (2)

84. The cost price of an article is Rs. 7840. To gain 7%, the article should be sold at

(1) Rs. 8388.80

(2) Rs. 8000

(3) Rs. 8383.80

(4) Rs. 8833.80

Ans. (1)

85. Two pipes can fill a tank in 10 minutes and 30 minutes respectively and a third pipe can empty the full tank in 20 minutes. If all the three pipes are opened simultaneously, the tank will be

(1) 10 minutes

(2) 8 minutes

(3) 7 minutes

(4) None of these

Ans. (4)

86.(4*4*4+3*3*3)/13 =

(1) 7

(2) 2

(3) 3

(4) 4

Ans. (1)

87. (6.25) <sup>4</sup>÷ (6.25)<sup>3</sup> =?

(1) 6.25

(2) 6.025

(3) 6.0025

(4) 6.002

Ans. (1)

88. The ratio between the ages of Ram and Mohan is 4:5 and that between Mohan and Anil is 5:6. If sum of the ages of three be 90 years, how old is Mohan?

(1) 24 years

(2) 20 years

(3) 30 years

(4) 25 years

Ans. (3)

89. The per cent of 2 /45 is?

(1) 3&4/9 %

(2) 4&4/9 %

(3) 4 %

(4) 9 %

Ans. (2)

90. If a <sup>x</sup>=b;b <sup>y</sup>=c and c<sup>z</sup> =a , then xyz =?

(1) 1

(2) -1

(3) 2

(4) 2

Ans. (1)

91. Match the name of countries in List-I with years of beginning of railways in List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List -I List—II

(Countries) (Year of beginning of railways)

(a) Britain 1. 1853

(b) America 2. 1829

(c) India 3. 1825

(d) France 4. 1830

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 4 1 3 2

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (3)

92. The length of Indian rails is

(1) More than 5000 km

(2) More than 5630 km

(3) More than 6000 km

(4) More than 6531 km

Ans. (4)

93. Match the items of List-I with List-II and select the-correct answer by using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I List-II

(Largest Population) (States)

(a) Jains 1. Nagaland

(b) Buddhas 2. Rajasthan

(c) Christians 3. Maharashtra

(d) Muslims 4. Lakshadwip

Codes:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) 2 1 4 3

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 1 2 4 3

(4) 1 2 3 4

Ans. (2)

94. The capital of the king of Punjab Ranjit Singh was

(1) Lahore

(2) Ludhiana

(3) Mathura

(4) Sri Nagar

Ans. (1)

95. Photosynthesis does not take place in

(1) plants

(2) fungi

(3) bacteria

(4) virus

Ans. (4)

96. In nucleuic protein, Uceriotic chromosomes are alike in

(1) prophase

(2) Metaphase

(3) Anaphase -

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

97. Which type of protein is found in virus?

(1) Lyco protein

(2) Secondary protein

(3) Primary protein

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

98. In ionic solid, the velocity of electricity is

(1) fast

(2) weak

(3) less than solid

(4) less than gas

Ans. (1)

99. The largest phase in cell division is

(1) Liptotin

(2) Zagotin

(3) Pacotin

(4) None of these

Ans. (3)

Free online Sample GK Questions

Free online Sample GK Questions
Free General Knowledge Online Practice Test

1. Lumbini is the place where the Buddha
(A) attained nirvana
(B) attained enlightenment
(C) was born
(D) was married

2. Galvanometer is an instrument to measure?
(A) relative density of liquids
(B) electric currents
(C) pressure of gases
(D) distances

3. Who wrdte ‘Mudra Rakshasa’?
(A) Vishakhadatta
(B) Bana Bhatta
(C) Kalidasa
(D) Jaya Dev

4. The venue of Asian Games in1970 was?
(A) Beijing
(C) Bangkok
(B) Jakarta
(D) New Delhi

5. 1929 is known for?
(A) visit of Simon Commission to India
(B) congress resolution for complete independence of India
(C) coming of Indian National Congress under the leadership of
Mahatma Gandhi
(D) burma was made a part of India

6. INS Airavat is India’s
(A) amphibious ship
(B) submarine
(C) destroyer
(D) frigate

7. Astra-Missile is
(A) surface to surface missile
(B) surface to air missile
(C) air to surface missile
(D) air to air missile

8. Nehru Institute of Mountaineering is situated at?
(A) Nainital
(B) Darjeeling
(C) Shimla
(D) Uttarkashi

9. Which of the following was not the base of L.T.T.E. before being captured by Srilankan Forces?
(A) Elephant Pass
(B) Kilinochchi
(C) Mullaithivu
(D) Muridke

10. Who is the foreign minister of European Union?
(A) Baroness Ashlon
(B) Massimo D Alema
(C) David Miiband
(D) Carl Bildt

11. Who is the author of ‘Godan’?
(A) Bhishma Sahani
(B) Premchand
(C) Manohar Shyam Joshi
(D) Sharad Chandra Chattopadhyay

12. Which political party does Raj Babbar belong to?
(A) Samajwadi
(B) Bharatiya Janata Party
(C) Congress
(D) Bahujan Samaj Party

13. Alberto Fujimori is the former president of?
(A) Japan
(B) Peru
(C) South Korea
(D) Vietnam

14. Which of the following is the national river of India?
(A) Brahmaputra
(B) Nannada
(C) Ganga
(D) Kaveri

15. The highest number of telephone users are in?
(A)China
(B) U.S.A.
(C)Canada
(D) India

16. The president of Maldives is
(A) Maumoom Abdul Gayoom
(B) Mohammad Ashraf
(C) Mahmood Alam
(D) Mohammed Nasheed

17. Arabinda Rajkhowa is a member of?
(A) B.J,P.
(B) Assam Gana Parishad
(C) Maoist Centre
(D) ULFA

18. The breakthrough in the ideas of Darwin on the evolution of species came after his visit to a cluster of islands and where he saw that each island supported its own form of finch. Name the island/s
(A) Iceland
(B) Greenland
(C) Galapagos
(D) Christian Islands

19. Mahatma Gandhi never became a Nobel Laureate, but he was nominated five times. In which of the following years he was not nominated?
(A) 1937
(B) 1939
(C) 1948
(D) 1940

20. When was the University of Bombay (now is Mumbai) established?
(A) 1861
(B) 1857
(C) 1909
(D) 1890

21. Harare is the capital of?

(A) Zambia
(B) Zaire Republic
(C) Zimbabwe
(D) Yemen

22. Which is the largest island in the world (if Australia is not considered an island)?
(A) Iceland
(B) Borneo
(C) Sumatra
(D) Greenland

23. Indo-Pak Summit between Parvez Musharraf and Atal Bihari Bajpayee was held in 2001 at?
(A) Delhi
(B) Shimla
(C) Agra
(D) Mumbai

24. Which of the following is not a union territory?
(A) Tripura
(B) Daman and Diu
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Puducherry

25. Who was the founder editor of ‘Kesari’?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhle
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji

26. With whose permission did the English set up their first factory at Surat?
(A) Akbar
(B) Shahjahan
(C) Jahangir
(D) Aurangzeb

27. The group of nations known as G-8 started as G-7. Which among the following was not one of them?
(A) Canada
(B) Italy
(C) Russia
(D) Japan

28. Emperor Akbar the Great, died in the year?
(A)1505
(B)1605
(C)1606
(D)1590

29. What was the name of Emperor Shahjahan before he became Emperor?
(A) Kusrau
(B) Khurram
(C) Parvez
(D) Shaheryar

30. Which of the following trees has medicinal value?
(A)Pine
(B) Teak
(C) Oak
(D) Neem

31. Identify the main principle on which the Parliamentary system operates?
(A) Responsibility of executive to legislature
(B) Supremacy of democracy
(C) Rule of law
(D) Supremacy of the Constitution

32. Great tennis player Bjorn Borg belongs to which country?
(A) Italy
(B) Latvia
(C) U.S.A.
(D) Sweden

33. Which of the following is the national anthem of India?
(A) Vande Mataram...
(B) Jana gana mana adhinayak...
(C) Ye mera chaman, ye mera chaman
(D) Sarejahan se achchha

34. Which country was known as sick man of Europe?
(A) Greece
(B) Latvia
(C) Turkey
(D) Austria

35. In Malaysia, the word ‘bhumi putra’ refers to?
(A) Malayas
(B) Chinese
(C) Indians
(D) Buddhists

36. What was the real name of Munshi Premchand?
(A) Nabab Rai
(B) Dhanpat Rai
(C) Ram Chandra Srivastava
(D) Hari Shankar

37. Who is the author of ‘Old Man and the Sea’?
(A) John Ruskin
(B) Raja Rao
(C) Gunter Grass
(D) Ernest Hemingway

38. Prophet Mohammed was born in?
(A) 570 AD.
(B) 720 AD.
(C) 620 AD.
(D) 510 AD.

39. When was the First World War declared?
(A)1914
(B)1915
(C)1918
(D)1913

40. Deodhar trophy is given for the game of?
(A)Cricket
(B) Football
(C) Hockey
(D) Golf

41. Pariyar Wild Life sanctuary is situated in the state of?
(A) Tamil Nadu
(B) Karnataka
(C) Kerala ,
(D) Andhra Pradesh

42. Nepanagar in Madhya Pradesh is known for?
(A) steel mill
(B) sugar mills
(C) potteries
(D) news print factory

43. Who destroyed the Somnath temple in Gujarat?
(A) Mohammed Ghouri
(B) Mahmood Gaznavi
(C) Changhez Khan
(D) Taimur Lang

44. In Cape Traflagar, the famous battle of Trafalgar was fought in
1805. Where is Cape Trafalgar situated?
(A)Italy
(B) Greece
(C)Spain
(D) Portugal
Answers
1 C
2 B
3 A
4 C
5 B
6 A
7 D
8 D
9 D
10 A
11 B
12 A
13 B
14 C
15 A
16 D
17 D
18 C
19 C
20 B
21 C
22 D
23 C
24 A
25 B
26 C
27 C
28 B
29 B
30 D
31 C
32 D
33 B
34 C
35 A
36 B
37 D
38 A
39 A
40 A
41 C
42 D
43 B
44 C