Friday, January 21, 2011

GK sample question papers of UPSC NDA entrance exam

GK sample question papers of UPSC NDA entrance exam
1. Lake Sambhar is nearest to which of the following cities of Rajasthan?

(1) Bharatpur

(2) Ja1pur

(3) Jodhpur

(4) Udaipur

Ans. (2)

2. Consider the following statements:

1. Femur is the longest bone in the human body.

2. Cholera is a disease caused by bacteria.

3. ‘Athlete’s foot’ is a disease caused by virus.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) 1 and 2

(2) 2 and 3

(3) 1 and 3

(4) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (4)

3. Two cars X and Y start from two places A and B respectively which are 700 km apart at 9 am both the cars run at an average speed of 60km/hr. Car X stops at 10 am. and again starts at 11 a.m.

While the other car Y continues to run without stopping. When do the cars cross each other?

(1) 1:40 p.m

(2) 3:20 pm

(3) 4:10 p.m

(4) 4:20 p.m.

Ans. (2)

4. Which among the following National Highway routes is the longest?

(1) Agra-Mumbai

(2) Chennai-Thane

(3) Kolkata-Hajira

(4) Pune-Machilipatnam

Ans. (3)

5. Consider the following statements:

1. Narsimha Saluva ended the Sangama dynasty and seized the throne for himself and started the Saluva dynasty.

2. Vira Narasimha deposed the last Saluva ruler and seized the throne for himself.

3. Vira Narasimha was succeeded by his younger brother Krishnadeva Raya.

4. Krishnadeva Raya was succeeded by the half-brother Achyuta Raya.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) 1, 2 and 3

(2) 2, 3 and 4

(3) l and 4

(4) l, 2, 3, and 4

Ans. (4)

6. Match List-I (Institute) with List-II (Located At) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Institute) List-II (Located At)

A. Indian Institute Geomagnetism 1. Coimbatore

B. International Advanced Research Centre 2. Mumbai

for Powder Metallurgy and New Materials

C. Salem Ali Centre for Ornithology and 3. Jabalpur

Natural History

D. Tropical Forestry Research Institute 4. Hyderabad

Code:

A B C D

(1) 2 3 1 4

(2) 1 4 2 3

(3) 2 4 1 3

(4) 1 3 2 4

Ans. (3)

7. Consider the following events during India’s Freedom struggle:

1. Cháuri-chaura Outrage

2. Minto-Morley Reforms

3. Dandi March

4. Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms

Which one of the following is the correct ‘chronological order of the events given above?

(1) 1, 3, 2, 4

(2) 2, 4, 1, 3

(3) 1, 4, 2, 3

(4) 2, 3, 1, 4

Ans. (2)

8. Which one of the following four vedas contains an account of magical charms and spells?

(1) Rig-veda

(2) Yajur-veda

(3) Atharva-veda

(4) Sama-veda

Ans. (3)

9. The Montague-Chelmsford Report formed the basis of:

(1) The Indian Councils Act, 1909

(2) The Government of India Act, 1919

(3) the Government of India Act, 1935

(4) the Indian Independence Act, 1947

Ans. (2)

10. If the difference between 3/8 and 2/7 of a number are 50, then the number is:

(1) 500

(2) 520

(3) 540

(4) 560

Ans. (4)

11. If Chandra is shorter than Rina, Puja is taller than Sita and Sita is taller than Rina, who among them is the tallest?

(1) Chandra

(2) Puja

(3) Rina

(4) Sita

Ans. (2)

12. Latvia does not share its borders with which one of the following countries?

(1) Russia

(2) Estonia

(3) Lithuania

(4) Poland

Ans. (4)

13. Match List-I (Sea) with List- II (Country) and select the correct answer with the codes given below the lists:

List-I (Sea) List-II (Country)

A. Black Sea 1. Bulgaria

B. Red Sea 2. China

C. Yellow Sea 3. Eritrea

D. Caspian Sea 4. Kazakhstan

Code:

A B C D

(1) 1 4 2 3

(2) 2 3 1 4

(3) 1 3 2 4

(4) 2 4 1 3

Ans. (3)

14. A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 am to walk around a rectangular field 400 m x 300 m. A and B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr respectively.

How many times shall they cross each other if they continue to walk till 12:30 p.m.?

(1) Not even once

(2) Once

(3) Twice

(4) Thrice

Ans. (2)

15. Consider the following international languages:

1. Arabic

2. French

3. Spanish

The correct sequence of the languages given above in the decreasing order of the number of their speakers is:

(1) 3, 1, 2

(2) 1, 3, 2

(3) 3, 2, 1

(4) 1, 2, 3

Ans. (1)

16. In the last one decade which one among the following sectors has attracted the highest Foreign Direct Investment inflows into India?

(1) Chemicals other than Fertilizers

(2) Services sector

(3) Food processing

(4) Telecommunication

Ans. (4)

17. If a water tank is filled by pump A in 6 hours and by pump B in 12 hours, how many hours it would take to fill the tank if the pumps A and B both are operated simultaneously?

(1) 2

(2) 3

(3) 4

(4) 5

Ans. (3)

18. The missing number in the following series: 82, 97, 114, 133? Is:

(1) 152

(2) 153

(3) 154

(4) 155

Ans. (3)

19. A man is facing North-West. He turns 90° in Clock wise direction and then 135° in anticlock wise direction. Which direction he is facing now?

(l) North

(2) South

(3) East

(4) West

Ans. (4)

20. 100 mm is equivalent to:

(1) 0.001 meter.

(2) 0.01 meter

(3) 0.1 meter

(4) 1.0 meter

Ans. (3)

21. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Reinhold Messner : Computer Technology

(2 Harlow Shapely : Astronomy

(3) Gregor Mendel : Hereditary Theory

(4) Godfrey Hounsfield : CT Scan

Ans. (1)

22. Which of the following authors won the Booker Prize twice?

(1) Margaret Atwood

(2) J. M. Coetzee

(3) Graham Swift

(4) Jan McEwan

Ans. (2)

23. 50 men or 80 women can finish a job in 50 days. A contractor deploys 40 men and 48 women for this work, but after every duration of 10 days, 5 men and 8 women are removed till the work is completed. The work is completed in:

(1) 45days

(2) 50 days

(3) 54 days

(4) 62 days

Ans. (2)

24. A person stands at the middle point of a wooden ladder which starts slipping between a vertical wall and the floor of a room, while continuing to remain In a vertical plane. The path traced by a person

standing at the middle point of ‘the slipping ladder ‘is:

(1) straight line

(2) an elliptical path

(3) a circular path

(4) a parabolic path

Ans. (3)

25. Match List-I (New Name of the Countries) with List-II (Old names of the Countries) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (New Names of the Countries) List-II (Old Names of the Countries)

A. Benin 1. Nyasaland

B. Belize 2. Basutoland

C. Botswana 3. Bechuanaland

D. Malawi 4. British Honduras

5. Dahomey

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 1 2 4

(2) 5 4 3 1

(3) 3 4 2 1

(4) 5 1 3 4

Ans. (2)

26. Consider the following statements:

1. Baking soda is used in fire extinguishers.

2: Quicklime is used in the manufacture of glass.

3. Gypsum is used in the manufacture of Plaster of Paris.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) l and 2

(2) 2 and 3

(3) 1 only

(4) 1, 2, and 3

Ans. (4)

27. In how many different ways can six players be arranged in a line such that two of them Ajit and Mukherjee are never together?

(1) 120

(2) 240

(3) 360

(4) 480

Ans. (4)

28. Nine different letters are to be dropped in three different letter boxes. In how many different ways can this be done?

(1) 27

(2) 39

(3) 93

(4) 39-3

Ans. (2)

29. Which of the following institutes have been recognized as the Institute of National Importance (by an Act of Parliament)?

1. Dakshina Bharat Hindi Prachar Sabha, Chennai

2. National Institute of Pharmaceutical Education and Research, Mohali

3. Sree Chitra Tirunal Institute for Medical Services and Technology, Thiruvananthayuram.

4. Lakshmibai National Institute of Physical Education, Gwalior

Select the correct answer using ‘the codes given below:

Code:

(1)1, 2 and 3

(2) 3 and 4

(3) l, 2 and 4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (4)

30. With reference to the constitution of India, which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Forests : Concurrent List

(2) Stocks & Exchanges : Concurrent List

(3 Post Office Saving Bank : Union List

(4) Public Health : State List

Ans. (2)

31. Consider the following tasks:

1. Superintendence, direction and conduct of free and fair elections.

2. Preparation of electoral rolls for all e1ection to the Parliament, State Legislatures and the Office of the President and the Vice-President.

3. Giving recognition to political parties and allotting election symbols to political parties and, individuals contesting the election.

4. Proclamation of final verdict in the case of election disputes.

Which of the above is the functions of the Election Commission of India?

(1) l, 2 and 3

(2) 2, 3 and 4

(3) l and 3

(4) 1, 2 and 4

Ans. (1)

32. Match List-I (Sports-person) with List-II (Sport/Game) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Sports-person) List-II (Sport/game)

A. Shikha Tandon 1. Badminton

B. Ignace Tirkey 2. Swimming

C. Pankaj Advani 3. Lawn Tennis

D. Rohan Bopanna 4. Snooker

5. Hockey

Code:

A B C D

(1) 3 5 4 2

(2) 2 4 1 3

(3) 3 4 1 2

(4) 2 5 4 3

Ans. (4)

33. Three students are picked at random from a school having a total of 1000 students. The probability that these three students will have identical date and month of their birth is:

(1) 3/1000

(2) 3/365

(3) 1/ (365)2

(4) 1/ (365)2

Ans. (3)

34. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

List-I (Period) List-II (Wars)

1. AD 1767.69 1. First Anglo-Maratha War

2. AD 1790-92 2. Third Mysore War

3. AD 1824-26 3. First Anglo-Burmese War

4. AD 1845-46 4 Second Sikh War

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

Code:

(1) 2 and 4

(2) 3 and 4

(3) 1 and 2

(4) 2 and 3

Ans. (4)

35. In which one of the following Union Territories do the people of the Onge tribe live?

(1) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

(2) Dadra and Nagar Haveli

(3) Daman and Diu

(4) Lakshadweep

Ans. (1)

36. Consider the following crops:

1. Cotton

2. Groundnut

2. Maize

3. Mustard

Which of the above are Kharif Crops?

(1) l and 2

(2) 1, 2 and 3

(3) 3 and 4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (2)

37. Match List-I (Articles of the Constitution of India) with List-II (Provision) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I

(Articles of the Constitution of India) List-II (Provision)

A. Article 14 1. The State shall not discriminate against any citizen on grounds only of religion,

race, caste, sex, and place of birth or any of them

B. Article 15 2. The State shall to deny to any person equality

before the law or the equal protection of laws

within the territory of India

C. Article 16 3. Untouchability is abolished and its practice in

any form is forbidden

D. Article 17 4. There shall be equality of opportunity for all

citizens in matters relating to employment or

appointment to any office under the State.

Codes:

A B C D

(1) 2 4 1 3

(2) 3 1 4 2

(3) 2 1 4 3

(4) 3 4 1 2

Ans. (3)

38. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(1) Pitt’s India Act : Warren Hasting

(2) Doctrine of Lapse : Dalhousie

(3) Vernacular Press Act : Curzon

(4) Ilbert Bill : Ripon

Ans. (3)

39. Match List-I (Beaches in India) with List-II (States) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I (Beaches in India) List-II (States)



A. Gopinath Beach 1. Andhra Pradesh

B. Lawsons Bay Beach 2. Kerala

C. Devbah beach 3. Gujarat

D. Sinquerim Beach 4. Goa

5. Karnataka

Code:

A B C D

(1) 5 4 2 1

(2) 3 1 5 4

(3) 5 1 2 4

(4) 3 4 5 1

Ans. (2)

40. Consider the following statements:

1. Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer

2. Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both 1 and 2

(4) Neither l nor 2

Ans. (3)

41. Consider the following statements:

1. Reserve Bank of India was nationalized on 26 January 1950.

2. The borrowing programme of the Government of India is handled by the Department of Expenditure, Ministry of Finance.

Which of the ‘statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 2 only

(3) Both l and 2

(4) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans. (4)

42. Which one of the following statements is not correct?

(1) Under the Targeted Public distribution System, the families below Poverty Line are provided 50 kg. of food grains per month per family at subsidized price

(2) Under Annapurna Scheme indigent senior citizens of 65 years of age or above eligible for national Old Age Pension but not getting pension can get 10 kg of food grain per person per month free of cost

(3) Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment has scheme in which indigent people living in welfare institutions like orphanages are given 15 kg of food grains per month at BPL rates

(4) Ministry of Human Resource Development given financial support to Midday Meal Scheme for the Benefit of class I to V students in government or Government aided Schools

Ans. (1)

43. Consider the following statements:

1. Non-function of lachrymal gland is an import symptom of deficiency of Vitamin A.

2. Deficiently of Vitamin B1 can lead to indigestion and heart enlargement.

3. Vitamin C deficiency can lead to pain in the muscles

4. Deficiency of Vitamin D causes Increased loss of Ca++ in urine.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(1) l and 2

(2) 2, 3 and 4

(3) l, 3 and 4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (1)

44. The hormone insulin is a:

(1) Glycolipid

(2) Fatty acid

(3) Peptide

(4) Sterol

Ans. (3)

45. Consider the following statements:

1. In the third battle of Panipat, Ahmed Shah Abdali defeated Ibrahim Lodi

2. Tippu Sultan was killed in the third Anglo-Mysore War.

3. Mir Jafar entered in conspiracy with the English for the defeat of Nawab Slraj-ud-daulah in the Battle of Plessey

Which of the statements given is/are correct’?

(1) l, 2 and 3,

(2) 3 only

(3) 2 and 3

(4) None of these

Ans. (2)

46. With reference to Indian Parliament, which one of the following is not correct?

(1) The Appropriation Bill must be passed by both the Houses of parliament before it can be enacted into law.

(2) No money shall be withdrawn from the Consolidated Fund of India, except under the appropriation made by the Appropriation Act.

(3) Finance Bill is required for proposing new taxes but no another Bill/Act is required for making changes in the rates of taxes which are already under operation

(4) No Money Bill can be introduced except on the recommendation of the President

Ans. (1)

47. Consider the following statements:

Some of the main features of the Government of India Act. 1935 were the:

1. Abolition of dyarchy in the Governor’s provinces

2. Power of the Governors to veto legislative action and to legislate on their own

3. abolition of the principle of communal representation

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(1) 1 only

(2) 1 and 2

(3) 2 and 3

(4) 1, 2 and 3

Ans. (2)

Directions: (48-55) The following 8 (eight) items consists two statements: one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R): You are to examine these items using the codes given below:

Codes:

(1) Both A and Rare individually true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A

(3) A is true but R is false

(4) A is false but R is true

48. Assertion A: Bangalore receives much higher average annual rainfall than that of

Mangalore.

Reason(R): Bangalore has the benefit of receiving rainfall both from South-West and

North -East Monsoons

Ans. (4)

49. Assertion A: The central Rural Sanitation programme was launched in 1986 to improve the quality of life of rural people in India

Reas0n (R): Rural Sanitations a subject in the Concurrent list in the Constitution of India.

Ans. (3)

50. Assertion (A): West-flowing rivers of Peninsular India have no deltas.

Reason (R): These rivers do not carry any alluvial sediment.

Ans. (1)

51. Assertion (A): The thickness of the atmosphere is maximum over the Equator. Reason (R): High insolation and strong convection currents occur over the equator.

Ans. (4)

52. Assertion (A): In our houses, the current in electricity line change direction 60 second per second.

Reason (R): The frequency of alternating voltage supplied is 60 hertz.

Ans. (1)

53. Assertion (A): Fatty acids should be a part of the human diet

Reason (R): The cells of the human body cannot synthesize any fatty acids.

Ans. (3)

54. Assertion (A): India does not export rubber

Reason (R): About 97 percent of India’s demand for natural rubber is met from domestic production.

Ans. (2)

55. Assertion (A): The urban population of India (2001) exceeds the total population of the U.S.A.

Reason (R): India is more urbanized than the U.S.A.

Ans. (3)

56. Which one of the following cities is not correctly matched with its country?

(1) Salamanca : Spain

(2) Cannes : Italy

(3) Cancun : Mexico

(4) Bruges : Belgium

Ans. (2)

57. Which one of the following statements is correct?

‘Deccan Odyssey’ is

(1) a book on Chatrapati Shivaji

(2) a warship recently acquired by the Indian Navy

(3) a recently started air service between Mumbai and Colombo

(4) a luxury train which travels through Mahrashtra and includes Goa in its journey.

Ans. (4)

58. Which one of the following Article of the Constitution of India says that the executive power of every State shall be so exercised as not to impede or prejudice that exercise of the executive power of the Union?

(1) Article. 57

(2) Article 258

(3) Article 355

(4) Article 356

Ans. (1)

59. Match List-I (Minerals) with List-II (location) and select the correct answer using the codes given below the Lists:

List-I Minerals List-II (Location)

A. Coal 1 Giridih

B. Copper 2. Jayamkondam

C. Manganese 3. Alwar

D. Lignite 4. Dharwar

Code:

A B C D

(1) 1 4 3 2

(2) 2 3 4 1

(3) 1 3 4 2

(4) 2 4 3 1

Ans. (3)

60. Consider the following geological phenomena:

1. Development of fault

2. Movement along a fault

3. Impact produced by a volcanic eruption

4 Folding of rocks

Which of the above cause earthquakes?

(l) l, 2 and 3

(2) 2 and 4

(3) 1, 3 and 4

(4) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Ans. (4)

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